Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Jhelum River, a major tributary of the Indus, originates from the Verinag Spring located at the foothills of the Pir Panjal range in southeastern Kashmir. Flowing through Srinagar, it passes through Wular Lake before entering Pakistan via a narrow gorge and eventually merges with the Chenab River near Jhang.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Kolleru Lake functions as a natural flood-moderation basin between river systems. Its primary sources of water are the seasonal Budameru and Tammileru streams. Although the lake is linked to the Krishna and Godavari river systems through numerous channels and drains, the Krishna River does not discharge directly into the lake.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Kanwar Lake (Kabar Tal) in Bihar, recognized as Asia’s largest freshwater oxbow lake, originated as a result of the meandering course of the Burhi Gandak River, a tributary of the Ganga. Therefore, attributing its formation to the Gandak River is factually incorrect.

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct: Situated on the Coromandel Coast, around 24 km north of Chennai Port, Kamarajar Port is India's 12th major port. It holds the distinction of being the country's first major port established under a corporate structure. Unlike other major ports governed through port trusts, it operates as a registered company and represents the corporatized port model, which aligns with the landlord-port framework commonly adopted by medium and large ports worldwide.

Pair 2 is correct: Mundra Port, located along the northern coastline of the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat’s Kutch district, is the largest privately managed port in India. Developed and operated by Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited (APSEZ), it commenced operations in 2001. The port serves as a key gateway for both containerized and bulk cargo traffic. In addition, the nearby Mundra Airport is being upgraded to support international air-cargo operations.

Pair 3 is incorrect: The statement is incorrect because Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava Sheva) is recognized as India’s largest container-handling port, playing a pivotal role in maritime trade on the country's western seaboard. It is not identified by the characteristic mentioned in the pair.

Explanation

Option 1 is incorrect: Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an evergreen tropical tree belonging to the Moraceae family. Indigenous to tropical regions of Asia, it is extensively cultivated across humid tropical areas for its massive fruits and valuable timber. The immature green fruit is commonly used in cooked dishes as a vegetable, whereas the ripe fruit is consumed fresh for its sweet, mildly acidic pulp that surrounds the seeds.

Options 2 and 3 are correct: Moist deciduous forests typically develop in areas receiving annual rainfall ranging from 100 cm to 200 cm. Such forests are widespread in the northeastern states, the Himalayan foothill belt, the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, and parts of Odisha. Characteristic tree species found in these forests include teak and mahua, along with sal, shisham, amla, semul, hurra, kusum, and sandalwood.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: India possesses the world's largest extent of arable land, estimated at about 179.8 million hectares, exceeding the corresponding figures for the United States (167.8 million hectares) and China (165.2 million hectares) according to several official datasets. However, based on the answer key and interpretation adopted in the examination, this statement has been treated as incorrect.

Statement 2 is correct: A significant share of India’s cultivated land is supported by irrigation facilities. Approximately 48% of India’s cultivated area is irrigated, compared to about 41% in China. This indicates that irrigation coverage is relatively higher in India.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Despite having a smaller cultivated area, China achieves substantially higher agricultural production. China’s total sown area is around 166 million hectares, whereas India’s gross cropped area is nearly 198 million hectares. Nevertheless, the value of China’s agricultural output is estimated at $1,367 billion, which is more than three times India’s output of about $407 billion. Productivity levels in several major crops are also considerably higher in China, often ranging between 50% and 100% above those recorded in India.

Explanation

Option (a) is incorrect: The Bhitarkanika Mangroves of Odisha constitute one of India’s most important mangrove ecosystems. Although the area is regularly affected by tidal movements, its development is largely linked to riverine and estuarine processes rather than repeated marine regression. The region is also well known as a habitat for diverse wildlife, including the saltwater crocodile.

Option (b) is incorrect: The Marakkanam Salt Pans in Tamil Nadu are coastal salt-producing areas created by channeling seawater into shallow basins and allowing it to evaporate. Their origin is associated with human-managed salt extraction activities rather than a historical decline in sea level.

Option (c) is incorrect: The Naupada Swamp (Naupada Wetland), located in Andhra Pradesh, is predominantly a freshwater wetland. Its existence is sustained by river inflows and seasonal precipitation, not by recurring episodes of sea-level retreat.

Option (d) is correct: Among the given choices, the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat best represents a landscape shaped by successive falls in sea level. Geological evidence suggests that this region was once connected to the Arabian Sea. Over time, marine regression and related geomorphological changes converted it into an extensive salt marsh. Today, the area is renowned for its distinctive ecological character, rich biodiversity, and seasonal congregation of migratory birds. It is also widely recognized for hosting the annual Rann Utsav, which showcases the cultural heritage of the region.

Explanation

Ilmenite (FeTiO₃) and rutile (TiO₂) are important titanium-bearing minerals containing substantial amounts of the metal. Titanium is valued for its combination of low density, high strength, and exceptional resistance to corrosion, making it indispensable in sectors such as aerospace, transportation, healthcare, and engineering.

Several stretches of India’s coastline possess rich deposits of these minerals. They are typically associated with placer deposits in coastal beach sands, from where they are recovered through mining and mineral separation processes. The extracted ores serve as the principal raw materials for the production of titanium dioxide, which can subsequently be processed to obtain metallic titanium.

Hence, the extensive deposits of ilmenite and rutile along India’s coastal regions constitute an important source of titanium resources.

Explanation

The Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) is the leading producer of cobalt globally, contributing nearly 75% of the world’s total output. In 2022, the country produced approximately 130,000 metric tonnes of cobalt, reinforcing its dominant position in the international market. Cobalt is a strategically important mineral, extensively used in the production of rechargeable batteries for electric vehicles, as well as in electronic devices such as smartphones, laptops, and other portable technologies.

Several factors explain the DRC’s prominence in cobalt production:

Extensive Cobalt Resources: The DRC possesses the world’s largest known cobalt reserves, estimated at around 3.4 million metric tonnes. The availability of such vast deposits has enabled the country to emerge as the principal supplier of cobalt to global markets.

Contribution of Artisanal Mining: A considerable share of cobalt extraction in the DRC comes from artisanal and small-scale mining activities, where miners often rely on simple tools and manual techniques. While these operations provide livelihoods for many people, they are frequently associated with concerns related to worker safety, environmental degradation, and human rights issues.

Presence of Large-Scale Mining Enterprises: In addition to artisanal production, the country hosts numerous industrial mining projects operated by major international companies. These mechanized operations employ advanced technologies and contribute significantly to satisfying the growing global demand for cobalt, particularly from the clean energy and electronics sectors.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct: The Congo Basin is an extensive geographical region in Central Africa and is best known for containing the Congo Rainforest, which ranks as the world's second-largest tropical rainforest after the Amazon. The basin extends across six countries: Cameroon, the Central African Republic, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea, and Gabon.

Option (b) is incorrect: Nigeria lies in the western part of Africa and is situated west of Cameroon. Since it is outside the drainage and ecological boundaries of the Congo Basin, it is not considered part of the region.

Option (c) is incorrect: Although South Sudan is located in East-Central Africa and lies relatively near the Congo Basin, its territory does not form part of the basin. The core expanse of the Congo Basin is located largely to its south.

Option (d) is incorrect: Uganda, situated in East Africa between the Great Lakes region and the equatorial belt, is close to the eastern margins of the Congo Basin. However, it is not counted among the countries that constitute the basin region in its entirety.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Amarkantak, located in the Anuppur district of Madhya Pradesh, is an important pilgrimage and ecological site. The region is renowned as the point where the Vindhya Range and the Satpura Range converge, with the Maikal Hills forming the central connecting highland. Therefore, the statement given is not correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Biligirirangan Hills (BR Hills) do not belong to the Satpura Range. These hills are situated in southwestern Karnataka, along the Karnataka–Tamil Nadu border. The area is widely known for the Biligiri Ranganatha Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary (BRT Wildlife Sanctuary) and forms an important ecological link between the Western and Eastern Ghats.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Seshachalam Hills, often referred to as the Tirumala Hills, are not associated with the Western Ghats. Instead, they constitute a section of the Eastern Ghats and are located in the southern part of Andhra Pradesh, particularly within the Tirupati region of Rayalaseema. These hills are noted for their distinctive terrain, biodiversity, and religious significance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The East–West Corridor, developed under the National Highways Development Project (NHDP), links Silchar in Assam with Porbandar in Gujarat. Hence, the statement claiming that it connects Dibrugarh and Surat is inaccurate. The corridor stretches for about 3,300 km and forms a major transportation artery across northern and northeastern India through National Highway 27.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The India–Myanmar–Thailand Trilateral Highway is a cross-border connectivity initiative designed to establish a road link between Moreh in Manipur and Mae Sot in Thailand, passing through Myanmar. The project seeks to strengthen regional integration by promoting trade, transportation, and closer interaction among the participating countries.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Bangladesh–China–India–Myanmar Economic Corridor (BCIM) is a proposed regional connectivity network intended to connect Kunming in China with Kolkata in India through Myanmar and Bangladesh. Since Varanasi is not located on the planned route of this corridor, the statement is not correct.

Explanation

Statement I is correct: India generates electricity from a diverse mix of energy sources, including conventional sources such as thermal, hydroelectric, and nuclear power, as well as renewable sources like solar, wind, and biomass. Despite this diversity, coal-based thermal power plants remain the dominant contributors, accounting for nearly 58% of total electricity generation. During 2021–22, nuclear power contributed approximately 3.15% of the country’s total electricity output.

Statement II is incorrect: For commercial nuclear power generation, uranium fuel generally requires enrichment of the U-235 isotope to around 3–5%. In contrast, many research reactors operate using uranium enriched to 20% or higher. Uranium enriched to 90% or above is commonly classified as weapons-grade material, making it suitable for military applications rather than civilian electricity production.

Explanation

Statement I is correct:

Marsupials are a distinctive group of mammals, with nearly 270 living species distributed mainly across Australia, Papua New Guinea, and parts of South America. They do not occur naturally in India. Well-known representatives of this group include kangaroos, wallabies, koalas, wombats, bandicoots, and opossums. Although marsupials are commonly associated with a pouch (marsupium) used for carrying and nurturing young, not every female marsupial possesses a fully developed pouch. Another notable feature of these mammals is their comparatively short gestation period, which in some species may last only about 10.5 days.

Statement II is incorrect:

In South America, marsupials are commonly found in tropical rainforest ecosystems. These animals occupy a wide variety of ecological niches and can live at different levels of the forest, ranging from the canopy to the ground layer. However, certain species exhibit specialized habits; for instance, wombats are burrowing mammals that spend much of their time underground. It is also noteworthy that the Virginia opossum is the only marsupial species naturally found in North America.

Explanation

The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) works towards minimizing the adverse impacts of invasive alien species on biodiversity and ecosystems. Its primary objective is to enhance understanding of invasive species and promote effective measures for their prevention, management, and eradication, thereby safeguarding native flora, fauna, and ecological systems.

The ISSG also serves as a global platform for the exchange of information, research findings, and best practices related to invasive species. By fostering collaboration among scientists, policymakers, and conservation practitioners, it helps ensure that management decisions are informed by sound scientific evidence and practical experience.

The group's activities are largely centered on two key areas:

Providing policy support and technical expertise on issues related to invasive species management.

Facilitating knowledge dissemination and networking through online databases, information resources, and international collaboration initiatives.

Explanation

Option (A) is the correct answer.

Lion-tailed Macaque: The lion-tailed macaque is an active daytime primate and therefore cannot be classified as a nocturnal species. It spends much of the day foraging for fruits, insects, and other small invertebrates within the forest canopy.

Conservation Status:

IUCN Red List: Endangered

Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I

CITES: Appendix I

Malabar Civet: The Malabar civet is predominantly active during the night and is endemic to the Western Ghats of India. A substance known as civetone, obtained from its scent glands, has traditionally been utilized in the manufacture of perfumes and certain medicinal products.

Sambar Deer: The sambar deer is mainly a crepuscular animal, exhibiting peak activity during the early morning and evening hours. It generally remains sheltered in dense vegetation throughout the day and emerges into more open habitats for feeding around dusk. Although it may occasionally remain active after dark, it is not considered a truly nocturnal species.

Explanation

Honeybees communicate the location of food sources through two distinct dance patterns:

Round Dance

Waggle (Tail-Wagging) Dance

The round dance is performed when the food source is situated relatively close to the hive, generally within a range of about 25–100 metres. This dance merely signals the presence of food nearby and does not convey any information regarding the direction in which the food can be found.

When the food source lies at a greater distance, bees switch to the waggle dance. Unlike the round dance, this movement communicates both the direction of the food source and the effort required to reach it, which is related to the distance traveled.

The distance is indicated through the duration and frequency of the dance movements. As the distance to the food source increases, the number of dance circuits completed within a fixed time interval decreases. For example, a bee may perform about 8–9 circuits in 15 seconds for a source located 200 metres away, around 4–5 circuits for a source approximately 1,000 metres distant, and roughly 3 circuits for a source situated 2,000 metres from the hive.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Several species of medicinal mushrooms, including shiitake, maitake, and reishi, are recognized for their potential health-promoting properties. Research has indicated that these mushrooms may exhibit immune-enhancing and anti-cancer effects. They are also valued as nutritious foods because they provide essential nutrients such as B vitamins, dietary fiber, and antioxidants.

Statement 2 is correct: A substance is described as psychoactive when it influences brain function and alters an individual's mood, perception, thinking, consciousness, or behavior. Common examples include alcohol, caffeine, nicotine, cannabis, and certain analgesic drugs. The compound psilocybin, naturally present in some species known as magic mushrooms, possesses hallucinogenic properties. Consumption of psilocybin-containing mushrooms can produce effects ranging from feelings of well-being and sensory enhancement to vivid hallucinations, making it comparable in action to hallucinogens such as LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide).

Statement 3 is correct: Recent scientific investigations have identified a growing number of mushroom species that contain bioactive compounds with insecticidal properties. These substances have attracted attention for their potential applications in biological pest management and related fields.

Statement 4 is correct: Bioluminescence refers to the natural generation and emission of light by living organisms. Among fungi, Panellus stipticus is regarded as one of the most intensely glowing bioluminescent mushroom species. Although these small fan-shaped fungi appear pale yellow or beige during daylight, they emit a noticeable glow in dark conditions. In India, extensive fungal surveys conducted in the forests of the Northeast have documented more than 600 fungal species and led to the identification of a new light-emitting mushroom, Roridomyces phyllostachydis. This species was first observed near a stream in Mawlynnong (East Khasi Hills, Meghalaya) and was later recorded in Krang Shuri (West Jaintia Hills).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian squirrels do not typically create underground burrows as nesting sites. Species such as the Indian Palm Squirrel usually construct their nests among tree branches or utilize natural cavities in tree trunks for shelter and breeding.

Statement 2 is correct: Seeds and nuts constitute an important part of a squirrel’s diet, especially during periods when food availability is limited. To prepare for such times, squirrels often cache food by burying it in the soil, allowing them to locate and consume it later when required.

Statement 3 is correct: Although squirrels are commonly associated with eating nuts, their diet is far more diverse. They are omnivorous mammals, feeding on a variety of plant-based and animal-based food sources. Besides fruits, seeds, nuts, and fungi, they may also consume insects, caterpillars, eggs, small vertebrates, and even young snakes when the opportunity arises.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Certain microorganisms, known as thermophiles, are adapted to survive and multiply in extremely hot environments. These extremophiles generally flourish at temperatures ranging from about 41°C to 122°C, with many species preferring conditions between 60°C and 80°C. A notable example is Pyrolobus fumarii, which has been observed growing at approximately 113°C, a temperature that exceeds the normal boiling point of water.

Statement 2 is correct: Microorganisms that thrive in very cold environments are called psychrophiles. These organisms can remain active and reproduce at temperatures where most microbes are unable to grow. While many microorganisms stop growing around 0°C or slightly above, some psychrophilic species can continue metabolic activity and growth at temperatures below the freezing point. Although growth under such conditions is extremely slow, certain microorganisms have been reported to survive and multiply at temperatures as low as −10°C, and in practical terms, growth limits for some bacteria, yeasts, and moulds may extend to around −7°C.

Statement 3 is correct: Acidophiles are microorganisms specially adapted to acidic habitats and exhibit their best growth under low-pH conditions. They are broadly classified into moderate acidophiles, which prefer environments with a pH between 3 and 5, and extreme acidophiles, which are capable of thriving in environments where the pH is below 3.

Explanation

Options 1, 2, and 3 are correct: Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are synthetic compounds that do not occur naturally and are manufactured entirely through industrial processes. Their principal applications include refrigeration systems, air-conditioning equipment, insulating foam production, and aerosol propellants. In addition, they have limited use in areas such as solvents and fire-suppression technologies.

Option 4 is incorrect: Despite their wide application in cooling technologies, foam manufacturing, aerosols, and certain fire-protection systems, HFCs are not employed in the production of lubricants. Therefore, the statement associating HFCs with lubricant manufacturing is incorrect.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) are investment structures designed to mobilize capital from investors for financing and operating infrastructure assets. These trusts function as pass-through entities, whereby the earnings generated by the underlying assets are distributed to unit holders.

Under the tax provisions introduced in the Union Budget 2023–24, various categories of income distributed by InvITs—including interest, dividends, and rental receipts—are taxable in the hands of investors. This represents a departure from the earlier framework, under which only certain forms of distributed income were subject to taxation. The objective of the revised regime is to broaden the tax base and ensure consistent taxation of income received through InvIT investments, irrespective of its source.

Some key features of the revised tax treatment include:

Interest income distributed through InvITs is taxed according to the investor’s applicable income-tax slab.

Dividend income is subject to the prescribed tax provisions governing such distributions.

Rental income received through InvITs is also taxed at the investor’s applicable marginal rate.

Statement 2 is correct: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act). This legislation establishes a mechanism for the securitisation of financial assets and empowers lenders to enforce security interests in the event of loan defaults. As a result, InvITs fall within the ambit of the Act for relevant borrowing and enforcement-related provisions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: In the period following the COVID-19 pandemic, numerous central banks across the world adopted a policy of increasing interest rates. Such rate adjustments are an important component of monetary policy and are often employed when economies experience rising inflationary pressures. By raising policy rates, central banks seek to curb excessive demand, moderate borrowing, and prevent sustained increases in prices, thereby promoting macroeconomic stability.

Statement 2 is correct: Monetary policy encompasses the measures undertaken by a central bank to regulate the availability and cost of money and credit within an economy. Interest rates serve as one of its most significant instruments. When inflation accelerates, higher interest rates increase the cost of loans and reduce the incentive for households and businesses to spend and invest. This moderation in demand helps contain inflation and supports the objective of maintaining stable prices.

Hence, Statement 2 correctly explains Statement 1. The widespread increase in policy interest rates by central banks reflects their belief that tighter monetary conditions can reduce inflationary pressures by restraining demand, thereby contributing to price stability and sustainable economic growth.

Explanation

Option (B) is the correct answer.

Statement I is correct: Carbon markets are increasingly regarded as one of the most effective market-based mechanisms for tackling climate change. These systems assign a monetary value to greenhouse gas emissions, thereby encouraging industries and governments to reduce their carbon footprint. Through the trading of carbon credits or emission allowances, carbon markets create financial incentives for adopting cleaner technologies and reducing emissions. As a result, they have emerged as an important component of climate mitigation policies across many countries.

Statement II is correct: A carbon market functions by placing a price on carbon emissions and permitting the exchange of carbon credits among participants. Entities that emit less than their prescribed limit can sell their surplus credits, whereas those exceeding their limit can purchase additional credits. This system promotes cost-effective emission reduction by allowing mitigation efforts to occur where they can be achieved most efficiently. Although the mechanism involves financial transactions, its principal purpose is to regulate and lower greenhouse gas emissions, not merely to transfer resources between the private sector and the government.

Why Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I: While Statement II correctly describes the functioning of carbon markets, it does not explain why they are expected to become one of the most widely used tools against climate change. Their growing acceptance stems from their ability to provide economic incentives, ensure flexibility in compliance, and facilitate efficient emission reductions. The transfer of financial resources is only an incidental feature and not the primary reason for their widespread adoption.

Explanation

Option (A) is correct: Sterilization is a monetary policy measure employed by a central bank to neutralize the impact of its foreign exchange market interventions on the domestic money supply. Whenever a central bank purchases or sells foreign currency, the amount of liquidity available in the economy changes accordingly.

One of the key instruments used for this purpose is Open Market Operations (OMO). Through OMO, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) buys or sells government securities in the open market to regulate liquidity conditions. For example, when the RBI purchases government securities, additional funds flow into the banking system, leading to an expansion of the money supply. To counterbalance this effect and prevent excess liquidity from fueling inflation, the RBI may undertake sterilization measures by selling other securities, such as Treasury Bills, thereby absorbing the surplus liquidity created by the initial operation.

Option (B) is incorrect: The oversight of payment and settlement systems relates to the RBI’s responsibility for ensuring the safe, efficient, and reliable functioning of mechanisms through which financial transactions are processed. Although this role is vital for maintaining financial stability, it has no direct connection with sterilization operations, which are specifically aimed at managing liquidity arising from foreign exchange interventions.

Option (C) is incorrect: The RBI also performs debt and cash management functions for both the Central Government and State Governments. This includes handling government borrowings, servicing public debt, and managing cash balances. While these responsibilities are crucial for public finance administration, they are distinct from sterilization, which focuses on offsetting liquidity effects generated by foreign exchange transactions.

Option (D) is incorrect: The regulation and supervision of Non-Banking Financial Institutions (NBFIs), including Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), form another important area of RBI’s responsibilities. These institutions contribute significantly to financial intermediation, but their regulation is unrelated to sterilization. The latter is concerned specifically with maintaining monetary stability by neutralizing changes in the domestic money supply resulting from foreign exchange operations.

Explanation

Capital Markets are segments of the financial system where long-term financial instruments, such as shares, debentures, and bonds, are issued and traded. They facilitate the mobilization of long-term funds for governments and corporations.

In contrast, the Money Market deals with short-term financial instruments having maturities of less than one year. Instruments commonly traded in this market include Treasury Bills (T-Bills), Commercial Papers (CPs), Cash Management Bills (CMBs), and Ways and Means Advances (WMAs).

Statement 1 is correct: Government bonds are long-term borrowing instruments issued by the government to raise funds for public expenditure and development activities. Since these securities generally have longer maturities and are traded in the market for long-term capital, the government bond market forms an integral part of the capital market.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The call money market is a segment of the money market where financial institutions borrow and lend funds for extremely short durations, often for just one day (overnight). Because it deals exclusively with short-term liquidity requirements, it is categorized under the money market rather than the capital market.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Treasury Bills (T-Bills) are short-term debt instruments issued by the government to meet temporary funding needs. As these securities have short maturities and serve short-term financing purposes, the Treasury Bill market is considered a component of the money market, not the capital market.

Statement 4 is correct: The stock market, also referred to as the equity market, is the platform where investors buy and sell shares of publicly listed companies. Since shares represent ownership claims in companies and are instruments of long-term investment, the stock market is a key component of the capital market.

Explanation

Option (A) is incorrect: This option relates to the resettlement of displaced populations, particularly individuals who have been forced to leave their homes due to conflicts or other disruptions. It has no connection with the concept of Small Farmer Large Field, which focuses on agricultural cooperation among farmers.

Option (B) is correct: The Small Farmer Large Field approach encourages marginal and small farmers within a locality to join together and function as a collective unit. Rather than cultivating fragmented plots independently, farmers coordinate selected farming activities on a larger scale. Through such collaboration, they can pool resources, share labour and machinery, adopt improved agricultural practices, and undertake collective marketing of produce.

A key advantage of this model is that it enables farmers to benefit from economies of scale, leading to greater efficiency and higher productivity despite their small individual landholdings.

Option (C) is incorrect: This option refers to an arrangement in which farmers hand over their land to a corporate entity under a contractual framework and receive compensation in return. Such an arrangement does not involve collective action by farmers or the coordinated management of agricultural operations that characterizes the Small Farmer Large Field model.

Option (D) is incorrect: This option describes a form of contract farming, where a company provides farmers with credit, technical guidance, and production inputs in exchange for the cultivation of specific crops required by the company. Although it establishes a relationship between farmers and agribusiness firms, it does not involve the collective organization and synchronized farming activities that define the Small Farmer Large Field concept.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Government of India announces a Minimum Support Price (MSP) for niger seed, a minor oilseed crop predominantly grown under rainfed conditions. For the 2021–22 marketing season, the MSP for niger seed was fixed at ₹6,930 per quintal, reflecting an increase of ₹235 per quintal over the previous year.

Niger seeds contain about 37–47% oil, which is characterized by its light yellow colour, mild nutty taste, and pleasant aroma. The extracted oil has diverse applications, including cooking, body application, soap and paint manufacturing, lubrication, and illumination. Due to its excellent fragrance-retention capacity, it is also widely used as a base oil in the perfume industry. Traditional medicinal systems have additionally associated niger oil with certain therapeutic uses.

Statement 2 is correct: Niger (Guizotia abyssinica) is cultivated mainly as a Kharif crop in India. It is generally sown during the southwest monsoon season, which extends from June to October, and is well suited to regions receiving seasonal rainfall.

Statement 3 is correct: Among several tribal communities, niger seed serves multiple purposes. The oil is commonly used in food preparation, while the residual oil cake obtained after extraction is utilized as animal feed. The seeds themselves are also consumed as a flavouring agent or condiment. Owing to its recognized medicinal and cosmetic value, niger oil enjoys considerable demand in industries such as cosmetics, perfumery and personal care products.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: A brand represents a unique identity—such as a name, logo, design, or symbol—that enables consumers to distinguish a company's products or services from those of its competitors. The value associated with a brand, often referred to as brand equity, is considered an intangible asset because it arises from consumer recognition, trust, and perception rather than from any physical form.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Inventory consists of goods, raw materials, and finished products held by a business for production or sale. Since these items have a physical existence and can be counted, stored, and measured, they are classified as tangible assets. Consequently, inventory does not qualify as an intangible investment.

Statement 3 is correct: Intellectual Property (IP) encompasses legally protected creations of the mind, including patents, trademarks, copyrights, and trade secrets. These assets derive their value from innovation, creativity, and exclusive rights rather than physical substance. Therefore, investments in intellectual property are regarded as intangible investments.

Statement 4 is correct: A company's customer mailing list or database is also treated as an intangible asset. Developing such a list often requires considerable time, effort, and resources. It provides long-term value by facilitating targeted marketing campaigns, strengthening customer relationships, promoting products and services to specific audiences, and generating future business opportunities. As a result, it constitutes an important non-physical asset for many organizations.

Explanation

The Fifteenth Finance Commission revised the criteria used for horizontal tax devolution among states, assigning different weightages to factors such as income distance, demographic performance, forest and ecology, area, and tax effort.

Statement 1 is correct: Demographic Performance was introduced as a criterion by the Fifteenth Finance Commission and assigned a weight of 12.5%. The assessment was based on 2011 Census data and aimed to reward states that had achieved better outcomes in population stabilization. States with comparatively lower fertility rates and stronger demographic management were given higher scores under this parameter.

Statement 2 is correct: The criterion of Forest and Ecology was allotted a weight of 10%. It reflects the ecological contribution made by states through the conservation of forests and environmental resources. The calculation was based on the share of dense forest area within a state relative to the total dense forest cover across the country, thereby recognizing states that bear a larger ecological responsibility.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Although governance reforms are important for improving administrative efficiency, transparency, and public service delivery, the Fifteenth Finance Commission did not include governance reforms as a specific parameter for determining horizontal tax devolution among states.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The concept of a stable government pertains to political continuity and institutional stability. However, this factor was not incorporated as a criterion by the Fifteenth Finance Commission while recommending the distribution of tax revenues among states.

Statement 5 is correct: The Tax and Fiscal Effort criterion was assigned a weight of 2.5% to encourage states to improve revenue mobilization and fiscal discipline. The indicator was measured using the ratio of a state's average per capita own tax revenue to its average per capita Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) over the period 2016–17 to 2018–19. This approach rewarded states demonstrating greater efficiency in tax collection and fiscal management.

Explanation

UNOPS (United Nations Office for Project Services) was established in 1973 under the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and became an independent, self-financing entity in 1995. Its mission is to support sustainable outcomes in the fields of development, humanitarian assistance, and peacebuilding. Through its Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) Initiative, UNOPS promotes investments in infrastructure that contribute to long-term sustainable development.

Statement 1 is correct: The UNOPS S3i Initiative identifies affordable housing as one of its priority sectors. The initiative seeks to facilitate large-scale housing projects aimed particularly at middle-income and lower-middle-income households, thereby improving access to quality and affordable residential infrastructure.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Mass Rapid Transport Systems (MRTS) do not form part of the priority sectors under the UNOPS S3i Initiative. Therefore, the statement is not correct.

Statement 3 is correct: Healthcare infrastructure is a major focus area of the S3i Initiative. The programme supports projects designed to strengthen healthcare delivery by investing in facilities such as primary health centres, hospitals, diagnostic laboratories, and medical technology systems. The objective is to improve access to reliable and sustainable healthcare services in eligible countries.

Statement 4 is correct: The initiative also places significant emphasis on renewable energy development. Investments are directed toward infrastructure related to solar, wind, hydro, biomass, and hydrogen energy, particularly in emerging economies and developing nations. In addition to power generation, support may extend to associated transmission, distribution, storage facilities, and innovative technologies across the renewable energy value chain.

Explanation

The doctrine of Natural Justice embodies the principles of fairness, impartiality, reasonableness, equity, and equal treatment in decision-making processes. Originating from Common Law traditions, it serves a role similar to the American concept of procedural due process, ensuring that administrative and quasi-judicial authorities act fairly while exercising their powers.

Natural Justice comprises a set of fundamental procedural safeguards developed through judicial interpretation. These safeguards are intended to protect individuals from arbitrary actions and require administrative bodies to follow fair procedures whenever their decisions may adversely affect a person's rights or interests.

The concept also derives constitutional support from various provisions of the Indian Constitution. In particular, the expanded interpretation of Article 21, which guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty, incorporates both substantive and procedural due process. Consequently, the principles of Natural Justice have become an integral part of constitutional jurisprudence and are applied whenever state action affects an individual's rights, freedoms, or legitimate interests.

Explanation

The Prisons Act, 1894 is among the earliest laws governing the administration and regulation of prisons in India. It continues to provide the basic legal framework for prison management, although several states have supplemented it through their own prison rules and manuals.

Statement 1 is correct: Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, Prisons are included in the State List (List II). As a result, the responsibility for prison administration rests primarily with the State Governments. States possess the authority to enact laws, formulate policies, and introduce reforms relating to prison management within their jurisdictions. Therefore, prisons are administered by individual states in accordance with their own rules and regulations.

Statement 2 is correct: The day-to-day administration and management of prisons fall within the exclusive jurisdiction of the State Governments. While the Prisons Act, 1894 provides the foundational legal structure, each state also operates through its own Prison Manual and related regulations. This arrangement reflects the constitutional position that prison administration is a state subject, thereby empowering states to frame and implement their own procedures, standards, and guidelines concerning prison governance.

Therefore, Statement 2 correctly explains Statement 1. Since prisons fall under the State List, the authority to regulate and manage them lies with the states, which is why State Governments are empowered to formulate their own prison rules and administrative frameworks.

Explanation

A Constitution is the fundamental legal document of a country that lays down the framework of governance, defines the structure of government institutions, and specifies the distribution of powers and responsibilities among them. It also establishes the relationship between the State and its citizens while safeguarding individual rights and liberties.

The Constitution performs several important functions. It provides a legal and political foundation for the functioning of government, authorizes the enactment of laws, guides the administration of public affairs, and offers mechanisms for resolving disputes. In addition, it outlines broad national goals and ideals, including those embodied in the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs), which guide the State in promoting social, economic, and political justice.

However, the primary objective of a Constitution is to restrain and regulate governmental authority. Rather than granting unlimited powers, it establishes checks and balances to prevent arbitrary exercise of power and to protect citizens' freedoms. In this sense, a constitutional government is essentially a limited government, operating within boundaries prescribed by the Constitution and subject to the rule of law.

Explanation

The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951 introduced Article 15(4), empowering the State to make special provisions for the advancement of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs), as well as for the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). The provision clarified that such affirmative measures would not be considered a violation of Article 15 or Article 29(2) of the Constitution.

Article 15(4) states that nothing contained in Article 15 or Article 29(2) shall prevent the State from adopting measures aimed at improving the conditions of socially and educationally disadvantaged groups. This amendment provided the constitutional basis for reservation and other welfare initiatives intended to promote substantive equality.

The amendment was enacted in response to the landmark State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (1951) case. In this case, the Supreme Court struck down a government order that provided reservations in educational institutions on the basis of caste, religion, and community, holding that it violated Article 15(1) and Article 29(2). The judgment adopted a strict interpretation of the constitutional provisions and declared such reservations unconstitutional under the original text of the Constitution.

To overcome the implications of this judgment and enable the State to undertake affirmative action for disadvantaged sections, Article 15(4) was inserted through the First Amendment.

The First Amendment also brought significant changes to Article 19. While Article 19(1)(a) guarantees the Freedom of Speech and Expression, the amendment expanded the scope of reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2). Additionally, modifications were made to Article 19(6) to allow the State greater authority in regulating trade, business, and the creation of state monopolies.

Explanation

Option 1 is correct: The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially established as a statutory body under the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993. Subsequently, it was granted constitutional status through the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018, which inserted Article 338B into the Constitution. As a result, the NCBC now functions as a constitutional body with powers and responsibilities similar to other constitutional commissions.

Option 2 is incorrect: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is not a constitutional body. It was created under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 and derives its authority from legislation enacted by Parliament. Therefore, the NHRC is classified as a statutory body.

Option 3 is incorrect: The Law Commission of India is neither a constitutional nor a statutory institution. It is constituted periodically through a government notification issued by the Ministry of Law and Justice. Its primary role is to undertake legal research, review existing laws, and recommend reforms to improve the legal system. Hence, it is regarded as an executive or non-statutory body.

Option 4 is incorrect: The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) is a statutory body established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 (now governed by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019). It forms part of the three-tier consumer dispute redressal mechanism comprising District Commissions, State Commissions, and the National Commission, created to provide consumers with an accessible and efficient grievance redressal system.

Explanation

The President of India is elected through an Electoral College comprising the elected members of both Houses of Parliament, the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States, and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.

Statement 1 is incorrect: If the Supreme Court declares the election of a President invalid, all actions performed by that individual before the date of such declaration remain legally valid. The Constitution protects the continuity of governance by ensuring that official acts carried out during the tenure are not rendered void merely because the election is subsequently set aside.

Statement 2 is incorrect: In a 1974 judgment, the Supreme Court clarified that the dissolution of a State Legislative Assembly cannot be used as a justification for postponing the Presidential election. The election to the office of the President must be conducted upon the expiry of the incumbent’s term, irrespective of whether elections to a dissolved State Assembly have been completed.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not prescribe any specific period within which the President must act on a bill submitted for assent. Consequently, the President may choose to withhold a decision indefinitely, a situation commonly referred to as a Pocket Veto. Thus, there is no constitutional deadline requiring the President to either approve or return a bill within a fixed timeframe.

Explanation

The Finance Bill forms an integral part of the Union Budget and contains the legislative proposals necessary to implement the taxation and financial measures announced by the Finance Minister. Under Article 110 of the Constitution, a Finance Bill dealing exclusively with matters specified therein is treated as a Money Bill.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Since a Finance Bill of the Money Bill category enjoys the same constitutional status as a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha does not have the authority to reject or amend it. Its role is limited, and the final decision rests with the Lok Sabha.

Statement 2 is correct: A Money Bill cannot be either amended or vetoed by the Rajya Sabha. The Upper House may only return the Bill to the Lok Sabha with its recommendations within the prescribed period. The Lok Sabha is free to accept or disregard any or all of these recommendations.

Statement 3 is correct: Ordinarily, there is no provision for a joint sitting of Parliament in the case of a Money Bill, and the same principle applies to a Finance Bill that qualifies as a Money Bill. However, based on the official answer key, this statement appears to have been treated as correct for the purpose of the question.

Explanation

Community Reserves are a category of protected areas recognized under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. They are generally established on community or privately owned lands and often serve as buffer zones, ecological linkages, or wildlife corridors connecting National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, and Reserved or Protected Forests.

Statement 1 is incorrect: According to Section 36D of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the responsibility for the conservation and management of a Community Reserve lies with a Community Reserve Management Committee constituted by the State Government. This committee oversees the protection, maintenance, and administration of the reserve. The committee elects a Chairperson, who also functions as the Honorary Wildlife Warden of the reserve. Therefore, management is not vested in a single individual but in the committee as a whole.

Statement 2 is correct: Once an area is notified as a Community Reserve, hunting and poaching activities are prohibited. The legal protection granted to such areas aims to conserve wildlife and preserve ecological integrity.

Statement 3 is correct: Local communities residing in or around Community Reserves are generally permitted to collect Non-Timber Forest Produce (NTFPs), subject to applicable regulations and sustainable-use practices. This provision helps balance conservation objectives with traditional livelihood needs.

Statement 4 is incorrect: After an area receives Community Reserve status, activities that may adversely affect conservation goals, including hunting and certain forms of shifting (jhum) cultivation, are generally not permitted. Consequently, such practices cannot be freely continued within the notified reserve area.

Explanation

Under Paragraph 6 of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, the President of India is empowered to declare any area as a Scheduled Area, modify its boundaries, increase or decrease its extent. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 is also correct. As per the criteria adopted for identifying Scheduled Areas, the administrative unit may range from an entire district to a cluster of villages within a block, depending on the concentration of tribal population and geographical contiguity.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the Governor, not the Chief Minister, is required under the Fifth Schedule to submit an annual report to the President of India regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas. The President may issue directions to the State based on such reports.

Explanation

Statement I is correct. The Supreme Court, particularly in cases such as M. Nagaraj v. Union of India (2006), has held that while reservation in public employment under Article 16(4) is constitutionally permissible, it must be balanced with the requirement of maintaining efficiency of administration as mentioned in Article 335.

Statement II is incorrect because Article 335 does not define the term “efficiency of administration.” It merely states that the claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration in appointments and services, consistent with maintaining administrative efficiency. The meaning and scope of efficiency have been interpreted through judicial pronouncements rather than being explicitly defined in the Constitution.

Explanation

Dhanyakataka, identified with present-day Amaravati in Andhra Pradesh, was an important centre of Buddhism in ancient India. It flourished under the Mahasanghika sect, one of the early Buddhist schools that emerged after the first major schism in Buddhism. The region became famous for the Amaravati Stupa, a major Buddhist monument known for its rich sculptural tradition and architectural excellence.

Located on the banks of the Krishna River, Dhanyakataka developed as a significant centre of Buddhist learning, pilgrimage and monastic activity. It received patronage from the Satavahana rulers and later the Ikshvakus, contributing to the spread of Buddhism in the Deccan region. Literary and archaeological evidence confirms its association with the Mahasanghikas.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The concept of the Stupa predates Buddhism. Burial mounds and earthen tumuli existed in ancient India before the rise of Buddhism. The Buddha's followers adopted and developed this architectural form for religious purposes.

Statement 2 is correct. Stupas were generally constructed as repositories of relics associated with the Buddha, prominent monks, or other revered individuals. Relics such as bones, ashes, hair, or sacred objects were often enshrined within the structure.

Statement 3 is correct. In Buddhist tradition, stupas also served as votive and commemorative structures. Many stupas were erected to mark important events in the life of the Buddha, commemorate holy sites, or as acts of devotion by followers.

The stupa gradually evolved into one of the most important symbols of Buddhist architecture, with famous examples including Sanchi, Bharhut, and Amaravati.

Explanation

Korkai, Poompuhar (Kaveripattinam), and Muchiri (Muziris) were among the most important port towns of ancient South India. Sangam literature and archaeological evidence indicate that these ports played a significant role in maritime trade with the Roman Empire, Southeast Asia, and other regions.

Korkai was an important Pandyan port known for its pearl fisheries. Poompuhar, located at the mouth of the Kaveri River, served as a major Chola port and commercial centre. Muchiri (Muziris), situated on the Malabar Coast, was famous for the export of spices, especially pepper, and attracted merchants from the Mediterranean world.

These ports contributed significantly to the prosperity of the Chera, Chola, and Pandya kingdoms and are frequently mentioned in Sangam texts.

Explanation

Vattakirutal was a practice mentioned in Sangam literature in which a king, warrior, or noble person, after suffering defeat, dishonour, or unbearable grief, chose to end his life through ritual fasting unto death. The individual would sit facing the north and gradually abstain from food and water until death.

This practice was associated with the ideals of honour, valour, and personal dignity that occupied an important place in Sangam society. Literary references indicate that some rulers preferred death over living with the humiliation of military defeat.

The practice reflects the martial ethos and ethical values of ancient Tamil society as described in Sangam poems. It is often cited as evidence of the strong emphasis placed on reputation and honour in early South Indian political culture.

Explanation

None of the listed dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD.

The Hoysalas emerged as a significant power in Karnataka around the 11th century AD. The Gahadavalas ruled parts of present-day Uttar Pradesh and Bihar during the 11th–12th centuries AD. The Kakatiyas rose to prominence in the Telangana region during the 11th and 12th centuries AD, while the Yadavas of Devagiri established an independent kingdom in the late 12th century AD.

Although some of these dynasties may have had earlier origins as subordinate chiefs under larger empires, their kingdoms were not established in the early eighth century. Therefore, none of the given dynasties satisfy the condition mentioned in the question.

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect. Devichandragupta was authored by Vishakhadatta, not Bilhana. The work is known for information relating to the Gupta period.

Pair 2 is correct. Hammira-Mahakavya was composed by Nayachandra Suri and narrates the life of Hammira Deva Chauhan of Ranthambore.

Pair 3 is incorrect. Milinda-panha (Questions of King Milinda) is a Buddhist text recording dialogues between King Menander (Milinda) and Nagasena, not Nagarjuna.

Pair 4 is correct. Nitivakyamrita was written by the Jain scholar Somadeva Suri and deals with polity and ethics.

Thus, only pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched.

Explanation

The statement reflects the fundamental doctrine of Jainism, which holds that all entities possess a soul (Jiva). According to Jain philosophy, life exists not only in humans, animals and plants but also in elements such as earth, water, fire, air, and various natural objects.

Jainism classifies living beings according to the number of senses they possess. Even seemingly non-living entities such as rocks, soil, and water are believed to contain life forms. This belief forms the basis of the Jain principle of Ahimsa (non-violence), which requires avoiding harm to all living beings, however minute.

The doctrine is closely associated with the teachings of Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism. Because every living entity is believed to possess a soul capable of attaining liberation, compassion toward all forms of life occupies a central place in Jain ethics.

Explanation

Devaraya I (1406–1422 AD) of the Sangama Dynasty is credited with constructing a large dam (anicut) across the Tungabhadra River and an extensive canal-cum-aqueduct system to supply water to the capital city of Vijayanagara (Hampi).

The project was undertaken to address water scarcity, support agriculture, and improve urban infrastructure. Contemporary accounts indicate that the canal carried water from the Tungabhadra to the capital and surrounding agricultural lands, increasing cultivation and state revenue. The irrigation works reflected the advanced engineering capabilities of the Vijayanagara rulers and played a crucial role in sustaining one of the largest cities of medieval India.

The reign of Devaraya I is also noted for military consolidation and administrative reforms that strengthened the Vijayanagara Empire.

Explanation

Bahadur Shah (1526–1537 AD), the ruler of the Gujarat Sultanate, entered into negotiations with the Portuguese during a period of political pressure arising from the expansion of the Mughal Empire under Humayun.

Through the Treaty of Bassein (1534), Bahadur Shah granted the Portuguese permission to establish a fort at Diu, a strategically important port on the western coast of India. This enabled the Portuguese to strengthen their control over maritime trade in the Arabian Sea and expand their political influence in western India.

Diu subsequently became one of the most important Portuguese possessions in India. The event marked a significant phase in the growth of European colonial influence along the Indian coastline.

Explanation

The Charter Act of 1833 was a landmark legislation in the constitutional history of British India. It transformed the office of the Governor-General of Bengal into the Governor-General of India, thereby centralizing administrative authority over all British territories in India.

Under this Act, Lord William Bentinck, who was then Governor-General of Bengal, became the first Governor-General of India. The Act also vested legislative powers in the central government and reduced the law-making powers of the Presidencies of Bombay and Madras.

The Charter Act of 1833 is regarded as a major step toward administrative unification and centralization under British rule.

Explanation

Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) was launched in 2005 under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) as a safe motherhood intervention. It is implemented by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, with State Health Departments playing a key role in execution. The scheme primarily seeks to reduce Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) and Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) by encouraging institutional deliveries among poor pregnant women.

Under JSY, eligible pregnant women receive cash assistance to promote deliveries in government or accredited health institutions. The scheme particularly focuses on women belonging to economically weaker sections and those residing in low-performing states.

Statement 4 is incorrect because providing healthcare facilities to sick infants up to one year of age is not a specific objective of JSY. Its core focus is safe pregnancy and childbirth.

Explanation

The Anaemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) Strategy is a flagship initiative aimed at reducing anaemia among women, children and adolescents through a life-cycle approach.

Statement 1 is incorrect because AMB focuses on Iron and Folic Acid (IFA) supplementation, not prophylactic calcium supplementation. Calcium supplementation is covered under separate maternal health interventions.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The strategy promotes delayed cord clamping at birth, which helps improve iron stores in newborns, and also includes periodic deworming of children and adolescents to reduce parasitic causes of anaemia.

Statement 4 is correct. AMB addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia, particularly in endemic regions, with special attention to malaria, hemoglobinopathies such as sickle-cell disease and thalassemia, and fluorosis.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Carbon fibres are lightweight, extremely strong, corrosion-resistant materials widely used in industries requiring high strength-to-weight ratios. They are extensively used in the manufacture of components for aircraft, automobiles, spacecraft, wind turbines and sporting equipment. Their use improves fuel efficiency and structural performance.

Statement 2 is incorrect because carbon fibres can be recycled through various processes such as mechanical recycling, thermal recycling, and chemical recycling. Recycled carbon fibre is increasingly being used in industrial applications to reduce costs and environmental impact.

Although recycled fibres may not always retain the full properties of virgin fibres, they remain useful for a wide range of manufacturing purposes.

Explanation

An accelerometer is a sensor that measures changes in acceleration, motion, vibration, and orientation. It is widely used in modern electronic devices and automobiles.

In automobiles, accelerometers detect sudden deceleration during a collision, triggering the rapid deployment of airbags. In laptops, accelerometers can sense a sudden free fall and immediately park or shut down the hard drive to prevent damage. In smartphones, accelerometers detect changes in the device's orientation and enable automatic switching between portrait and landscape display modes.

Thus, all three actions depend on the functioning of an accelerometer. The device has become an essential component in safety systems, consumer electronics, and motion-sensing applications.

Explanation

A Recirculating Aquaculture System (RAS) continuously treats and reuses water used for fish culture. One of its most important components is the biofilter, which houses beneficial microorganisms.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the removal of uneaten feed and solid waste is primarily performed by mechanical filters, not biofilters.

Statement 2 is correct. Biofilters facilitate nitrification, a biological process in which bacteria convert toxic ammonia released through fish waste into nitrite and then into relatively less harmful nitrate.

Statement 3 is incorrect because biofilters do not function to increase phosphorus levels in water. Their primary role is maintaining water quality through biological treatment of nitrogenous waste.

Therefore, only Statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect. Cepheids are a class of variable stars whose brightness changes periodically. They are important for measuring astronomical distances.

Pair 2 is incorrect. Nebulae are vast clouds of gas and dust in space where stars may form or remnants of dying stars may exist.

Pair 3 is correct. Pulsars are rapidly rotating neutron stars formed after the collapse of massive stars during a supernova explosion. They emit beams of electromagnetic radiation that appear as regular pulses when observed from Earth.

Hence, only Pair 3 is correctly matched.

Explanation

Japan operates its own regional satellite navigation system known as the Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS), also called Michibiki. It is designed to improve positioning, navigation and timing services, particularly in Japan and the Asia-Pacific region.

QZSS works in conjunction with global systems such as the Global Positioning System (GPS) and provides higher accuracy in areas where tall buildings or mountainous terrain may obstruct satellite signals. The system enhances navigation for transportation, disaster management, agriculture and various location-based services.

Among the options given, Australia, Canada, and Israel do not operate independent satellite navigation systems comparable to QZSS.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Ballistic missiles are powered by rockets only during the initial boost phase. Thereafter, they follow a ballistic trajectory under the influence of gravity. In contrast, cruise missiles are generally powered throughout their flight by jet engines or similar propulsion systems and fly within the atmosphere.

Statement 2 is also incorrect. Agni-V is a long-range ballistic missile, not a cruise missile. It is capable of carrying nuclear payloads over long distances. BrahMos, developed jointly by India and Russia, is a supersonic cruise missile, not a ballistic missile.

Therefore, both statements are incorrect.

Explanation

Mercury is a highly toxic heavy metal that poses serious risks to human health and the environment.

Statement 1 is correct. Artisanal and small-scale gold mining is one of the largest sources of mercury emissions globally. Mercury is often used to extract gold from ore, leading to environmental contamination.

Statement 2 is correct. Coal-based thermal power plants release mercury into the atmosphere when coal containing trace amounts of mercury is burned. These emissions can accumulate in ecosystems and enter the food chain.

Statement 3 is correct. According to health agencies such as the World Health Organization (WHO), there is no known safe level of mercury exposure, especially for vulnerable groups such as pregnant women and children. Even low levels may cause neurological and developmental damage.

Explanation

Green hydrogen is hydrogen produced using renewable energy sources through the process of electrolysis of water. It is considered an important fuel for decarbonization.

Statement 1 is correct. Hydrogen can be used directly in specially designed internal combustion engines as a clean fuel.

Statement 2 is correct. Green hydrogen can be blended with natural gas and utilized in industrial heating systems, power plants, and gas distribution networks to reduce carbon emissions.

Statement 3 is correct. Hydrogen is widely used in fuel cells, where it reacts with oxygen to produce electricity. Fuel-cell electric vehicles emit only water vapour, making them an environmentally friendly transportation option.

Thus, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

Ukraine shares land borders with Poland, Slovakia, Hungary, Romania, Moldova, Belarus, and Russia.

Among the countries listed:

Hungary – Shares a border with Ukraine.

Romania – Shares a border with Ukraine.

Latvia – Shares a border with Russia and Belarus, but not Ukraine.

Lithuania – Does not share a land border with Ukraine.

Bulgaria – Does not share a land border with Ukraine.

Czech Republic – Does not share a land border with Ukraine.

Explanation

Insolation refers to incoming solar radiation received by the Earth. Solar radiation consists mainly of visible light, infrared radiation, and ultraviolet radiation.

Option (c) is correct because water vapour, which is concentrated in the troposphere, absorbs a significant portion of the incoming and outgoing infrared radiation. This absorption plays an important role in the greenhouse effect and atmospheric heating.

Option (a) is incorrect because the equator receives more insolation than the poles, but not ten times more. Option (b) is incorrect as visible light constitutes the largest share of solar radiation reaching Earth. Option (d) is incorrect because infrared radiation lies beyond the visible spectrum.

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect. Contrary to common belief, soils of tropical rain forests are generally nutrient-poor. Heavy rainfall causes intense leaching, washing away nutrients from the soil. Most nutrients are stored in the living vegetation rather than in the soil.

Statement II is correct. The combination of high temperature and high humidity accelerates the decomposition of dead plants and animals. Organic matter is broken down rapidly by microorganisms, releasing nutrients quickly.

However, these released nutrients are immediately absorbed by dense vegetation before they can accumulate in the soil. As a result, despite rapid nutrient cycling, the soil itself remains relatively poor in nutrients.

Explanation

Statement I is correct. During summer, land surfaces heat up much more rapidly than oceans, creating a significant temperature contrast between continents and adjacent seas. This contrast is weaker during winter because both land and water lose heat, although land cools faster.

Statement II is also correct. Water possesses a much higher specific heat capacity than land. Therefore, it requires more energy to increase its temperature and releases heat more slowly.

The higher specific heat of water explains why oceans experience smaller temperature variations compared to land. This differential heating and cooling produces the greater continent-ocean temperature contrast observed during summer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. P-waves (Primary Waves) travel faster than all other seismic waves and therefore reach a seismograph before S-waves (Secondary Waves). This difference in arrival time helps scientists determine the location and characteristics of an earthquake.

Statement 2 is also correct. P-waves are longitudinal waves, meaning that particles vibrate parallel to the direction of wave propagation. They can travel through solids, liquids, and gases. In contrast, S-waves are transverse waves, where particles vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. Since liquids cannot support shear stress, S-waves can travel only through solids.

The behavior of P-waves and S-waves has been crucial in understanding the internal structure of the Earth, including the existence of the liquid outer core.

Explanation

All three statements are incorrect.

Statement 1 is incorrect because several coastal thermal power plants use seawater for cooling purposes. This helps reduce dependence on freshwater resources.

Statement 2 is incorrect because many coal-based thermal power plants are located in water-stressed districts. Water scarcity has emerged as a major challenge affecting plant operations in several parts of India.

Statement 3 is incorrect because a significant number of coal-based thermal power plants are privately owned. Companies in the private sector operate major power generation facilities alongside public sector enterprises such as NTPC.

The question highlights the growing concern regarding the water footprint of thermal power generation and the need for sustainable cooling technologies.

Explanation

The Wolbachia method involves introducing the naturally occurring bacterium Wolbachia into mosquito populations, particularly Aedes aegypti, which transmits diseases such as Dengue, Zika, Chikungunya, and Yellow Fever.

When mosquitoes carry Wolbachia, their ability to transmit viruses to humans is significantly reduced. The bacterium competes with viruses inside the mosquito, limiting viral replication and thereby decreasing disease transmission.

Another advantage is that Wolbachia can spread naturally through mosquito populations because infected females pass the bacterium to their offspring. Several countries have implemented Wolbachia-based programmes as an environmentally friendly and sustainable method of vector control.

The technique is considered an important innovation in combating mosquito-borne diseases without relying solely on insecticides.

Explanation

Carbon Capture and Sequestration (CCS) refers to techniques aimed at removing carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere or preventing its release and storing it safely for long periods.

Statement 1 is correct. The spreading of finely crushed basalt rock on agricultural land, known as enhanced weathering, accelerates natural chemical reactions that absorb atmospheric CO₂ and store it in stable mineral forms.

Statement 2 is correct. Ocean alkalinity enhancement involves adding alkaline substances such as lime to seawater, increasing its capacity to absorb and store atmospheric carbon dioxide.

Statement 3 is correct. Industrial CO₂ can be captured, dissolved in water, and injected into underground geological formations, including abandoned mines and rock formations, where it becomes trapped or mineralized over time.

Explanation

Aerial metagenomics is the study of genetic material collected directly from the air of a particular environment. Organisms continuously shed biological material such as skin cells, hair, pollen, spores, microbes, and other particles that contain environmental DNA (eDNA).

Scientists collect air samples and analyze the DNA present in them to identify species inhabiting a region without physically capturing or observing them. This technique is increasingly used for biodiversity monitoring, detection of invasive species, wildlife conservation, and ecological studies.

Unlike traditional surveys, aerial metagenomics can provide information about multiple organisms simultaneously through a single air sample.

Explanation

Microsatellite DNA, also known as Short Tandem Repeats (STRs), consists of short repeated sequences of DNA that vary significantly among individuals and species. Because of their high degree of genetic variation, microsatellites are valuable molecular markers in genetics and evolutionary biology.

They are widely used to study genetic diversity, population structure, parentage analysis, and evolutionary relationships among species. Researchers compare microsatellite patterns to understand how species are related and how populations have evolved over time.

Microsatellite DNA is also employed in wildlife conservation, forensic science, and biodiversity studies. However, it is not used for stem-cell differentiation, clonal propagation, or clinical drug trials.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The classification of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) is no longer based solely on investment limits under the original framework of the MSMED Act, 2006. The Government revised the criteria in 2020, introducing a combined threshold of investment and annual turnover. Therefore, the statement citing investment between ₹15 crore and ₹25 crore for medium enterprises is not correct.

Statement 2 is correct. Under the Priority Sector Lending (PSL) guidelines of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), bank credit extended to the MSME sector is eligible for classification under priority sector lending, subject to RBI norms.

The MSME sector plays a crucial role in employment generation, exports, industrial production, and inclusive economic growth.

Explanation

A Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) is a digital form of a country's sovereign currency issued and regulated by its Central Bank. CBDCs can facilitate direct cross-border transactions without necessarily relying on the US dollar as an intermediary currency or the SWIFT messaging system. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 is also correct. One of the important features of programmable digital currencies is that conditions can be embedded into transactions. For example, funds may be programmed to be spent only within a specified period or for a designated purpose. This feature is often referred to as programmability and is considered a potential advantage of CBDCs.

Explanation

Beta (β) is a measure of a stock's volatility in relation to the overall market. It indicates how sensitive a stock's price is to market movements and is an important concept in portfolio management and asset pricing.

A beta value of 1 means the stock tends to move in line with the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates that the stock is more volatile than the market, while a beta less than 1 suggests lower volatility. A negative beta implies movement opposite to the market trend.

Investors use beta to assess systematic risk, which cannot be eliminated through diversification. It is a key component of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Self-Help Group (SHG)-Bank Linkage Programme was launched by NABARD in 1992, not by the State Bank of India. It aimed to improve access to financial services for poor households through group-based savings and credit mechanisms.

Statement 2 is correct. SHGs operate on the principle of collective responsibility. Members are jointly accountable for loans taken by individual members, which encourages repayment discipline and mutual support.

Statement 3 is also correct. SHGs receive support from Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Scheduled Commercial Banks, Cooperative Banks, and other financial institutions through credit linkage programmes.

The SHG movement has become an important instrument of financial inclusion and women's empowerment in rural India.

Explanation

Statement I is correct. Historically, India's public health system has been criticized for placing greater emphasis on curative care, such as treatment of illnesses, while comparatively less attention has been devoted to preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative healthcare services. Recent initiatives such as Ayushman Bharat and Health and Wellness Centres seek to address this imbalance.

Statement II is also correct. Under the Indian constitutional framework, Public Health and Hospitals are primarily State Subjects under the State List, making States responsible for organizing and delivering health services.

However, Statement II does not explain Statement I. The emphasis on curative care is related to historical policy priorities, resource allocation, and health infrastructure patterns rather than the decentralized nature of health administration.

Explanation

Statement I is correct. According to the United Nations World Water Development Report, 2022, India is the world's largest user of groundwater and accounts for more than 25% of global groundwater withdrawals. Groundwater plays a crucial role in India's agriculture, industry, and domestic water supply.

Statement II is incorrect. India's high groundwater extraction is not primarily due to drinking water and sanitation requirements. A major share of groundwater withdrawal is used for agricultural irrigation, particularly for water-intensive crops. Agriculture accounts for nearly 90% of groundwater use in India, while domestic and sanitation needs constitute a much smaller proportion.

Therefore, although India extracts a very large share of global groundwater, the principal reason is irrigation demand rather than merely meeting the drinking water requirements of its population.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Article 355 of the Constitution imposes a duty on the Union Government to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that governance in every State is carried on in accordance with the Constitution.

Statement 2 is correct. Article 22 provides certain safeguards to arrested persons but makes specific exceptions for preventive detention. A person under preventive detention does not enjoy all the procedural safeguards available to ordinary detainees, including certain rights relating to legal representation.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Under the Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA), 2002, a confession made before a police officer of a specified rank could be admissible as evidence, subject to prescribed safeguards. This was a significant departure from the general rule under the Indian Evidence Act.

Explanation

Somalia has experienced prolonged periods of civil conflict, political instability, terrorism, droughts, and food insecurity for several decades. The country has frequently faced humanitarian crises due to the combined impact of armed conflict, weak governance, climate shocks, and economic vulnerability.

In recent years, Somalia attracted international attention because of the threat of severe famine caused by repeated droughts, crop failures, livestock losses, and disruptions in food supply chains. Millions of people required humanitarian assistance, and international organizations repeatedly warned of worsening food insecurity.

The situation demonstrates the interaction between climate change, conflict, and poverty in aggravating humanitarian emergencies.

Explanation

The Nagoya Protocol is an international agreement under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) that seeks fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources.

Statement 1 is correct. In India, Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) established under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 play a crucial role in implementing the principles of Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS), which is a core objective of the Nagoya Protocol.

Statement 2 is also correct. BMCs are empowered to prepare People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs) and participate in decisions regarding access to biological resources. They can also receive and manage benefits arising from the use of biological resources and associated traditional knowledge, including collection-related charges as provided under the regulatory framework.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Under Article 54, the Electoral College for the Presidential election consists only of elected MPs and elected MLAs of States and Union Territories having Legislative Assemblies. Nominated members are excluded.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The value of an MLA's vote depends on the formula:

Population of the State ÷ Total elected MLAs ÷ 1000

Therefore, a higher number of Assembly seats generally reduces the value of each MLA's vote.

Statement 3 is correct. The value of vote of an MLA in Madhya Pradesh is higher than that of Kerala because Madhya Pradesh has a higher population per elected MLA.

Statement 4 is correct. The value of vote of an MLA from Puducherry is greater than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of population to elected Assembly seats is higher in Puducherry.

Explanation

Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess, and Walter Elliot were prominent archaeologists, surveyors, and historians associated with the exploration and documentation of India's archaeological heritage during the colonial period.

They made significant contributions to the study of ancient monuments, inscriptions, temples, Buddhist remains, and the ruins of Vijayanagara. Many of them worked with the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) or related archaeological initiatives.

Their surveys and excavations laid the foundation for modern archaeological research in India and helped preserve important historical sites.

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect. Besnagar in Madhya Pradesh is famous for the Heliodorus Pillar (Garuda Pillar) associated with Vaishnavism, not for a Shaivite cave shrine.

Pair 2 is correct. Bhaja Caves, located near Pune in Maharashtra, are among the earliest Buddhist rock-cut cave shrines and date back to the 2nd century BCE.

Pair 3 is correct. Sittanavasal, located in Tamil Nadu, is a celebrated Jain cave shrine known for its fresco paintings and association with Jain monks.

Thus, only pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Explanation

Statement I is correct. The Government of India declared 7 August as National Handloom Day in 2015 to recognize the contribution of handloom weavers and promote the handloom sector.

Statement II is also correct. On 7 August 1905, a meeting was held at the Calcutta Town Hall where the Swadeshi Movement was formally launched in response to the Partition of Bengal by Lord Curzon.

National Handloom Day is observed on this date to commemorate the Swadeshi Movement, which encouraged the use of indigenous products and promoted India's traditional textile industry. Therefore, Statement II correctly explains Statement I.

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect. The Flag Code of India, 2002 prescribes standard flag sizes, but 600 mm × 400 mm is not one of the approved standard dimensions. Standard sizes are based on the prescribed proportions and notified specifications.

Statement II is correct. The ratio of the length to the width (height) of the National Flag of India must always be 3 : 2. This ratio is mandatory irrespective of the size of the flag.

Since the first statement is incorrect and the second is correct, the correct answer is option (d).

Explanation

Statement I is correct. Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) is observed on 26 November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India by the Constituent Assembly in 1949. The day aims to promote awareness about constitutional values, rights, duties, and democratic principles among citizens.

Statement II is incorrect. The Drafting Committee was not constituted on 26 November 1949. It was established on 29 August 1947, with Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as its Chairman. On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution after the drafting process had already been completed.

Thus, Statement I is correct, whereas Statement II is factually incorrect.

Explanation

Statement I is correct. Switzerland is one of the world's leading exporters and refiners of gold. A large proportion of the world's gold passes through Swiss refineries for purification and re-export. As a result, Switzerland consistently ranks among the top gold-exporting countries by value.

Statement II is incorrect. Switzerland does not possess the second-largest gold reserves in the world. Countries such as the United States, Germany, Italy, France, and others hold significantly larger official gold reserves.

Switzerland's prominence in the gold trade arises from its advanced gold refining industry, strategic location, and role as a global financial centre rather than from the size of its gold reserves.

Explanation

Statement I is correct. The EU–US Trade and Technology Council (TTC) was launched in 2021 to strengthen cooperation between the United States and the European Union on issues relating to trade, technology, supply chains, digital governance, and emerging technologies.

Statement II is incorrect. The stated objectives of the TTC include promoting cooperation in technology standards, strengthening supply chain resilience, enhancing innovation, and addressing common global challenges. The USA and the EU have not claimed that the council aims to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.

Therefore, while the council was indeed established, the purpose stated in Statement II does not reflect its declared objectives.

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect. At the time relevant to the question, India's share in global merchandise exports was lower than 3.2%. Therefore, the figure mentioned in the statement is not correct.

Statement II is correct. The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme was launched to boost domestic manufacturing, attract investment, improve competitiveness, and enhance exports. The scheme covers sectors such as electronics, pharmaceuticals, automobiles, telecom equipment, and others.

Several Indian companies as well as foreign firms operating in India have benefited from the incentives offered under the PLI scheme by expanding production and investment within the country.

Thus, Statement I is incorrect while Statement II is correct.

Explanation

The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is a framework adopted by the European Union (EU) to ensure fiscal discipline among member states, particularly those using the Euro.

Statement 1 is correct. The SGP sets limits on budget deficits and public debt. It generally requires member states to keep their annual fiscal deficit below 3% of GDP and public debt below 60% of GDP.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The pact does not mandate the sharing of infrastructure facilities among EU countries. Its focus is on macroeconomic stability and fiscal management.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The SGP does not deal with technology sharing. Technology cooperation within the EU occurs through separate programmes and agreements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM) was adopted in 2018, but not all UN member states adopted it. Several countries chose not to participate or endorse the compact.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The GCM is a non-legally binding framework. It provides a cooperative approach to migration governance but does not impose legally enforceable obligations on countries.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The compact focuses on international migration and does not cover internally displaced persons (IDPs) or purely internal migration within a country's borders.

Therefore, none of the statements are correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Home Guards are governed by the respective State Home Guards Acts and Rules. There is no single Central Home Guards Act applicable throughout India.

Statement 2 is correct. Home Guards function as an auxiliary force to the police and assist in maintaining internal security, law and order, disaster response, and community service activities.

Statement 3 is also correct. Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in certain border and coastal states to assist in preventing infiltration, smuggling, and other security threats in sensitive areas.

Thus, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct. The Official Secrets Act, 1923 prohibits unauthorized use or wearing of police, military, naval, air force, or other official uniforms with the intent to deceive or gain unauthorized advantages.

Pair 2 is incorrect. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with rules relating to admissibility and evaluation of evidence in courts. It does not specifically criminalize misleading or obstructing police or military officers in the discharge of their duties. Such offences are covered under other criminal laws.

Pair 3 is correct in spirit but not as a matched pair for this question's official interpretation. The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 specifically introduced provisions penalizing celebratory gunfire that endangers human life or personal safety. However, UPSC's official answer key considers only one pair correctly matched.

Explanation

All three pairs are incorrectly matched.

North Kivu and Ituri are provinces in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) that have witnessed prolonged armed conflicts involving rebel groups and ethnic violence. They are not related to the Armenia-Azerbaijan conflict.

Nagorno-Karabakh is a disputed region that has been at the centre of the conflict between Armenia and Azerbaijan, not the insurgency in Mozambique.

Kherson and Zaporizhzhia are regions in Ukraine that gained international attention during the Russia–Ukraine conflict. They have no connection with the Israel-Lebanon dispute.

Therefore, none of the pairs are correctly matched.

Explanation

Statement I is correct. Israel has established diplomatic relations with several Arab countries, including Egypt, Jordan, United Arab Emirates, Bahrain, Morocco, and Sudan. The Abraham Accords (2020) significantly expanded Israel's diplomatic engagement with Arab states.

Statement II is incorrect. The Arab Peace Initiative was proposed by Saudi Arabia and endorsed by the Arab League in 2002. However, it was not signed by Israel. The initiative offered normalization of relations with Israel in exchange for a comprehensive settlement of the Palestinian issue.

Thus, Statement I is correct, while Statement II is incorrect.

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct. The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is India's highest sporting honour and is awarded for outstanding performance over the previous four years.

Pair 2 is incorrect. The Arjuna Award is given for consistent outstanding performance in sports, not for lifetime achievement. The Dhyan Chand Award is specifically meant for lifetime achievement in sports.

Pair 3 is correct. The Dronacharya Award honours coaches who have successfully trained athletes and teams for outstanding achievements.

Pair 4 is incorrect. The Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar recognizes organizations, institutions, corporate entities, and others that promote sports, not retired sportspersons.

Thus, only Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The 44th Chess Olympiad (2022) held in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, was the first Chess Olympiad hosted by India.

Statement 2 is correct. The official mascot was named "Thambi", meaning "younger brother" in Tamil.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Hamilton-Russell Cup is awarded to the winning team in the Open Section, not the Vera Menchik Cup.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The Vera Menchik Cup is awarded to the winning team in the Women's Section, not the Hamilton-Russell Cup.

Therefore, only Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

All three pairs are incorrectly matched.

Donbas is located in eastern Ukraine, not Syria. It has been a major conflict zone in the Russia–Ukraine conflict.

Kachin is a state in Myanmar, not Ethiopia. The region has experienced conflict involving ethnic armed organizations and the Myanmar military.

Tigray is a region in northern Ethiopia, not North Yemen. It witnessed a major civil conflict between Ethiopian federal forces and the Tigray People's Liberation Front (TPLF).

Since none of the locations are matched with the correct countries, the answer is None.

Explanation

Chad, Guinea, Mali, and Sudan have all witnessed military coups or military takeovers in recent years, leading to significant political instability and international concern.

Mali experienced military coups in 2020 and 2021.

Chad underwent a military-led transition following the death of President Idriss Déby in 2021.

Guinea witnessed a military coup in 2021 that removed President Alpha Condé.

Sudan experienced a military takeover in 2021, disrupting its democratic transition process.

These events attracted attention from organizations such as the African Union (AU), United Nations (UN), and regional bodies due to concerns regarding democracy, governance, and regional stability.

Explanation

Green Hydrogen, produced using renewable energy through electrolysis, is considered a key solution for reducing carbon emissions in several hard-to-abate industries.

Fertilizer Plants: Green hydrogen can replace conventional hydrogen produced from natural gas in the manufacture of ammonia and fertilizers.

Oil Refineries: Refineries use large quantities of hydrogen for processes such as hydrocracking and desulfurization. Green hydrogen can substantially reduce emissions from these operations.

Steel Plants: Green hydrogen can replace coking coal in the reduction of iron ore through the Direct Reduced Iron (DRI) process, significantly lowering carbon emissions.

Therefore, green hydrogen has the potential to decarbonize all three industries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The G-20 was established in 1999 in the aftermath of the Asian Financial Crisis as a forum bringing together Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors of major economies to discuss global economic and financial issues.

Statement 2 is also correct. During India's G-20 Presidency, Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) was identified as a major priority. India highlighted successful digital platforms such as Aadhaar, UPI, and DigiLocker as models for inclusive and sustainable digital transformation.

The focus on DPI aimed to promote financial inclusion, digital governance, and accessible public services across countries.