An Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) refers to any fund that is established or incorporated within India, functioning as a privately pooled investment vehicle that collects capital from sophisticated investors whether Indian or foreign and subsequently invests these funds in accordance with a predefined investment policy, all for the benefit of its investors. As per the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012, specifically Regulation 3(4), AIFs are categorized into three broad classes: Category I, Category II, and Category III.

Option I is incorrect. Stocks, such as equity shares, represent a traditional investment instrument, signifying the ownership stake held by an investor within a company.

Option II is correct. Hedge Funds fall under the Category III AIF classification, employing diverse or complex trading strategies, and may utilize leverage, including through investments in either listed or unlisted derivatives.

Option III is incorrect. Bonds represent a form of debt instrument, through which an investor effectively lends money to either a company or government entity, in return for regular interest payments without acquiring any ownership stake in the issuing entity.

Option IV is correct. Venture capital falls under the Category I AIF classification, focusing on investments in start-ups, early-stage ventures, social ventures, SMEs, infrastructure, or other sectors that the government or regulatory bodies consider socially or economically beneficial.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established under the RBI Act, 1934, with the primary purpose of regulating banknote issuance and maintaining monetary stability across India. Although its core objective centers on public welfare, certain market operations undertaken to safeguard financial stability also happen to generate income in the process. This resulting surplus is subsequently transferred to the Government of India, following the recommendations put forth by the Bimal Jalan Committee (2019) on the economic capital framework.

Option I is correct. Open market operations — through which the RBI either buys or sells government bonds to regulate money supply — represent a significant source of income for the institution. Beyond simply earning interest on these bonds, the RBI can also benefit from favorable fluctuations in bond prices.

Option II is correct. Under the provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA), the RBI carries the responsibility of managing the nation's foreign exchange reserves while ensuring external economic stability. The RBI's engagement within the foreign exchange market also contributes to its overall profitability — for instance, it may purchase U.S. dollars at lower rates and subsequently sell them at higher rates.

Option III is incorrect. The RBI does not hold responsibility for managing pension funds. Instead, pension fund management within India falls under the regulatory oversight of the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).

Option IV is incorrect. The RBI does not directly extend loans to private companies operating in India. Rather, it primarily lends funds to commercial banks and financial institutions, which then, in turn, provide credit to private companies and individuals.

Option V is incorrect. The RBI Act, 1934 designates the Reserve Bank of India as the sole authority responsible for issuing banknotes within India. In the process of printing and distributing currency notes, the RBI does incur expenditure, rather than generating income from this particular activity.

Row I is incorrect. The Directorate of Enforcement functions as a multi-disciplinary agency, primarily tasked with investigating cases of money laundering as well as violations of foreign exchange laws. Among its statutory functions, the agency is responsible for enforcing the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA) a law designed to prevent economic offenders from evading Indian legal jurisdiction by remaining outside the country's borders. Currently, the Directorate operates under the administrative control of the Department of Revenue, within the Ministry of Finance.

Row II is correct. The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) stands as India's premier agency dedicated to anti-smuggling intelligence, investigations and operations. Its mandate encompasses detecting and preventing the smuggling of contraband items including drugs, illicit wildlife products, and environmentally sensitive materials while also addressing commercial fraud and Customs duty evasion, as governed by the Customs Act, 1962. The DRI operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, functioning as part of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC).

Row III is incorrect. The Directorate General of Systems & Data Management operates under the CBIC, within the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. This Directorate:

Separately, the government has established a new wing called the Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management (DGARM), operating under the indirect taxes body within the Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC). This wing is tasked with providing intelligence inputs and conducting big data analytics to assist tax authorities in achieving better policy formulation and identifying tax evaders more effectively.

The Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) represents an Indian reporting framework, designed to improve disclosure of environmental, social and governance (ESG) performance among listed companies. Its origins trace back to the 'Voluntary Guidelines on Corporate Social Responsibility', which were introduced by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs back in 2009.

Statement I is incorrect. As per the SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 (LODR Regulations), it is the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). This report encompasses disclosures regarding how these companies perform in relation to the nine principles outlined within the National Guidelines on Responsible Business Conduct.

Statement II is correct. The BRSR functions as a non-financial reporting framework, requiring companies to disclose their performance across various environmental, social and governance (ESG) parameters, structured around the nine principles established under the National Guidelines on Responsible Business Conduct (NGRBC).

Statement I is incorrect. Under Section 10(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, agricultural income is granted exemption from taxation. This exemption covers income derived from cultivating and selling agricultural produce, sale of agricultural land, as well as compensation received from the government for the acquisition of agricultural land. However, income generated from allied agricultural activities — such as dairy farming, poultry rearing, or fisheries is not classified as agricultural income under the Act, and consequently remains subject to taxation by the central government.

Statement II is correct. As per Section 2(1A) of the Income Tax Act, rural agricultural land is not categorized as a capital asset. Consequently, any rental income derived from such land, or income earned through growing and selling produce on it, remains exempt from taxation.

Statement I is correct. The Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) represents a U.S.-led initiative, aimed at strengthening and diversifying the global supply chains for critical minerals. This initiative works toward promoting strategic projects and attracting investments across the entire value chain, achieved through collaboration with both industry players and partner governments. In June 2023, India became the 14th member to join the MSP.

Statement II is incorrect. India is not particularly resource-rich when it comes to many critical minerals that are essential for meeting its economic and strategic requirements. To address this gap, the Government released a list of 30 critical minerals in June 2023, while also strengthening exploration efforts through the Geological Survey of India (GSI) and other relevant agencies. In 2025, the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) was launched, aiming to build a robust framework toward achieving self-reliance within this sector. Under this mission, the GSI is tasked with undertaking 1,200 exploration projects spanning the period between 2024-25 and 2030-31.

Statement III is correct. In 2023, the Indian Parliament amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, granting the Central Government exclusive authority to auction mining leases and composite licenses for 24 critical minerals. These minerals are listed under the newly introduced Part-D of the First Schedule to the Act, encompassing lithium-bearing minerals, niobium-bearing minerals, and minerals belonging to the "rare earths" group specifically excluding those containing Uranium and Thorium.

Statement I is correct. Companies typically raise long-term funds through either issuing bonds or selling stocks. When a company issues bonds, it is essentially borrowing money from investors, who are then referred to as bondholders. Conversely, when a company issues stocks, it is selling ownership shares to investors, known as stockholders (or shareholders). Regarding investment returns, bondholders are generally considered to face relatively lower risk compared to stockholders.

Statement II is correct. A stockholder is regarded as an owner of the company, holding equity rights, whereas a bondholder functions as a creditor someone who lends money to the company but holds no ownership stake within it.

Statement III is correct. Bondholders are typically granted repayment priority over stockholders, since bonds are issued for a fixed term with a predetermined interest rate, becoming repayable upon maturity. In contrast, capital raised through share issuance is generally not returned during the company's operational lifetime, and the returns received by stockholders fluctuate based on the company's profitability.

Statement I is correct. According to NSE data and BIS reports, India has emerged as a major global hub for equity derivatives, particularly within the options segment. During 2023, India accounted for a substantial share of global equity option volumes with over 80% of global equity index option trades taking place on Indian exchanges such as the NSE.

Statement II is correct. In January 2024, India's stock market briefly surpassed that of Hong Kong, thereby becoming the fourth largest in the world in terms of market capitalization.

Statement III is incorrect. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) serves as the statutory regulatory authority entrusted with overseeing the securities market within India. It plays a crucial role in regulating stock market operations, protecting investor interests, taking action against unregistered financial advisors and issuing guidelines related to derivatives trading.

Statement I is correct. According to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) Sixth Assessment Report (2023), various human activities including fossil fuel combustion, deforestation and intensive agricultural practices have significantly contributed to global warming, resulting in an estimated temperature increase of 1.1°C since the early 20th century.

Statement II is correct. As the global population continues growing, the corresponding demand for raw materials also rises proportionally. However, many essential natural resources remain finite in availability. The circular economy helps reduce dependence on virgin materials by promoting the reuse and recycling of products, thereby conserving resources and protecting ecosystems ultimately supporting biodiversity conservation.

Statement III is correct. The circular economy additionally targets waste reduction during the production process itself, achieved through efficient design practices and resource reuse strategies. For instance, agricultural waste such as animal manure gets repurposed into organic fertilizer and biogas, thereby supporting sustainable farming practices and efficient energy utilization.

Since the circular economy helps mitigate greenhouse gas emissions through reduced raw material consumption and lower waste generation, option A is confirmed as the correct answer: both Statement II and Statement III effectively explain the reasoning behind Statement I.

Statement I is correct. Capital receipts refer to those receipts of the government that either create a liability or result in a reduction of financial assets.

Statement II is correct. Borrowings such as loans obtained from the RBI, foreign governments, or raised through the issuance of government securities along with disinvestment, which involves selling the government's stake in public sector enterprises are both classified as capital receipts.

Statement III is incorrect. Interest received on loans extended by the Central government to either state governments or other countries is classified as a revenue receipt, since it constitutes income for the government and does not create any corresponding liability.

Statement I is correct. Raja Rammohan Roy held deep admiration and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East; yet, simultaneously, he believed that Western culture alone possessed the capacity to help regenerate Indian society. Roy viewed different religions as national expressions of a shared universal theism. He championed the fundamental and universal principles underlying all religions such as the monotheistic teachings of the Vedas and the unitarian aspects of Christianity while simultaneously criticizing the polytheistic elements within Hinduism and the trinitarian doctrine within Christianity.

Statement II is correct. Raja Rammohan Roy held strong convictions regarding the principle of causality, which he believed connected the entire phenomenal universe, and he regarded demonstrability as the sole criterion for determining truth. In particular, he sought to encourage his fellow countrymen to embrace a scientific and rational approach, alongside the principles of human dignity and social equality for all men and women. He further advocated for the introduction of modern capitalism and industry within the country.

Option I is correct. The Non-Cooperation Programme included the boycott of law courts, as well as government schools and colleges. It further involved boycotting foreign cloth, with khadi being promoted as an alternative, alongside the practice of hand-spinning.

Options II and IV are correct. As part of the Non-Cooperation Programme, decisions were made to establish national schools and colleges, strengthen panchayats for dispute resolution, promote hand-spinning and weaving, condemn and renounce untouchability, maintain communal harmony, and strictly observe non-violence.

Option III is incorrect. The Non-Cooperation Programme involved the renunciation of government titles and honorary positions not the retention of such titles and honours while simply avoiding their public use.

Within India, the irrigation device known as araghatta or arahatta consisted of a single wheel, fitted with clay pitchers or pots attached around its rim. This device was also referred to as the 'Ghanti-Yantra.' The araghatta functioned as a Persian wheel essentially a mechanical water-lifting device, employed during medieval India to draw water from wells for the purpose of irrigation.

Option a is correct. Mahendravarman I (600-630 A.D.) served as a Pallava ruler, particularly recognized for his patronage toward arts and literature. During his reign, tensions escalated between the Chalukyas of Badami and the Pallavas, culminating in his defeat by Pulakeshin II at Pullalur (situated near Kanchi), resulting in the annexation of the northern portion of the Pallava kingdom. He assumed several titles, including Gunabhara, Satyasandha, Chettakari (meaning "builder of temples"), Chitrakarapuli, Vichitrachitta, and Mattavilasa. The Mandagappattu inscription celebrates him as Vichitrachitta, crediting him with constructing a temple dedicated to Brahma, Vishnu, and Shiva, notably without using any bricks, timber, metal, or mortar. His title Chitrakarapuli reflects his skills in painting.

Fa-hien (Faxian), the Buddhist scholar originating from China, visited India during the period AD 399-414, coinciding with the reign of Chandragupta II. He documented the prosperity of the Gupta Empire during his travels. His primary purpose was to visit various Buddhist monasteries and obtain copies of religious texts. He traveled through places including Peshawar, Taxila, Mathura, Kannauj, Shravasti, Kapilavastu, Sarnath and numerous other locations. He subsequently compiled a travelogue titled "Record of Buddhistic Kingdoms," which provides details about the religious and social life of Indians during that era.

Details about India from Fa-hien's Account:

His book also reveals the following aspects of India during this period:

Option c is correct. Rajendra I (c. 1014-1044 CE), the son of Rajaraja I, stood as one of the most prominent rulers within the Chola dynasty. He continued his father's expansionist policies, further advancing the Chola territorial expansion. In 1025 CE, a successful naval expedition was launched against the Sri Vijaya empire a kingdom that extended across the Malay peninsula, Sumatra, Java, and neighboring islands, while controlling the overseas trade routes to China. This expedition resulted in the conquest of Kadaram (Kedah), along with several other locations across the Malay peninsula and Sumatra. During this period, the Chola navy stood as the strongest force within the region, and for a certain duration, the Bay of Bengal effectively became known as a "Chola lake."

The Srivijaya Kingdom:

Pair I is correct. Asmaka, also known as Assaka (situated near Nanded, within the Godavari valley in Maharashtra), is located along the banks of the Godavari river, positioned between the Godavari and Manjira rivers. This kingdom finds mention across multiple ancient texts, including Panini's Ashtadhyayi, the Markandeya Purana, and the Brihatsamhita. Various Buddhist texts also place Assaka along the Godavari river in Maharashtra.

Pair II is incorrect. The primary river flowing through the Kamboja region is the Jhelum river, referred to as "Vitasta" in ancient texts. Kamboja encompassed the present-day area of Rajaori, located within the Hazara district of Pakistan. It functioned as a monarchy until roughly the 6th century BCE, though the later text Arthashastra describes them instead as a "gana sangha."

Pair III is incorrect. The mahajanapada of Avanti was situated within the Malwa region of central India. The Mahanadi River does not flow through the Avanti region. Avanti had two capitals one at Ujjayini (near modern Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh), and the other at Mahishmati (identified with present-day Mandhata, in the western part of Madhya Pradesh).

Pair IV is correct. Sarayu served as the principal river of the Kosala region (encompassing Eastern Uttar Pradesh, including Ayodhya and the tribal republican territory of the Shakyas of Kapilavastu). The Sarayu river divided this state into two sections: the northern part, with its capital at Shravasti, and the southern part, with its capital at Kushavati. Kosala was bordered by the Sadanira (modern-day Gandak) to the east, the Gomati to the west, the Sarpika or Syandika (Sai) to the south, and the Nepal hills to the north.

Vishnu Digambar Paluskar established the Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore, during 1901, with the specific intention of teaching and preserving the knowledge of Indian classical music and dance for future generations. The underlying objective was to make music education accessible to any aspiring student, without requiring an association with a particular guru or gharana. Later, the Gandharva Mahavidyalaya relocated to Mumbai.

Following his passing in 1931, the Delhi branch was subsequently inaugurated in 1939 by Pt. Vinay Chandra Maudgalya, who belonged to the same musical tradition.

Ashokan inscriptions suggest that 'Pradeshika,' 'Rajuka,' and 'Yukta' functioned as important officials within the district-level administration. At the district level, these three officials Pradeshika, Rajuka, and Yukta were listed as key administrative figures. The Pradeshika served as the overall in-charge of the district, functioning without any advisory council. The district administration itself operated under the Rajukas, whose role and functions closely resembled those of modern-day collectors. The Rajukas held authority, not only to reward individuals, but also to impose punishment when necessary. The Yukta, meanwhile, served as a junior officer, providing secretarial-type assistance to the other two officials, handling accounting, secretarial duties and various miscellaneous tasks.

Statement I is correct. At the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress (December 1920), the Congress formally declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' through all legitimate and peaceful means as its stated objective, marking a significant shift in the party's official goal.

Statement II is correct. The Non-Cooperation Movement was designed to be implemented in phases. The initial phase involved boycotts of titles, councils, schools, courts, and foreign goods. Only if Swaraj failed to materialize within one year, and if the Government resorted to repressive measures, would the movement progress to its next stage, incorporating civil disobedience and the non-payment of taxes. This graduated approach reflected Gandhi's cautious strategy, allowing the movement to escalate only if peaceful demands went unmet.

The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) functions as a political and military alliance, established in 1949 with the purpose of ensuring collective defense among its member countries. Over the years, NATO has expanded significantly, now encompassing 32 member countries.

Option 1 is incorrect. Austria does not hold membership within NATO.

Option 2 is correct. Bulgaria joined NATO alongside six other Eastern European countries during 2004.

Option 3 is correct. Albania and Croatia became NATO members on 1st April 2009, following the deposit of their respective instruments of accession.

Option 4 is incorrect. Serbia is not a member of NATO.

Option 5 is correct. North Macedonia became NATO's 30th member in 2020, after resolving a long-standing naming dispute with Greece, which had previously obstructed its path to accession.

Option 6 is correct. Sweden ended its long-held policy of neutrality, prompted by regional security concerns particularly following Russia's invasion of Ukraine and subsequently joined NATO as its 32nd member in 2024.

The Andes Mountains rank among the longest continental mountain ranges in the world, stretching approximately 7,000 km along the western coast of South America, extending from Venezuela in the north down to Chile and Argentina in the south. The Andean Mountains (Andes) pass through the following countries:

Option 2 is incorrect. Brazil does not fall within the Andes Mountain range. Geographically, Brazil lies east of the Andes, remaining entirely separate from this mountain system.

Option 5 is incorrect. The Andes do not extend through Paraguay. Instead, Paraguay is situated east of the Andes, located on the Paraguayan Plateau.

Option 1 is incorrect. Lake Tanganyika is situated in central Africa, ranking among the deepest and oldest freshwater lakes in the world. Geographically, this lake lies entirely south of the Equator.

Option 2 is incorrect. Lake Tonle Sap stands as one of the largest freshwater lakes in Cambodia. It is located within the central plains of Cambodia, positioned at a latitude of approximately 13° north of the Equator.

Option 3 is incorrect. Patos Lagoon, locally known as "Lagoa dos Patos," represents a large coastal lagoon situated in the southern region of Brazil. It ranks among the largest lagoons found in South America, positioned roughly 30° south of the Equator.

The Government of India, in 2023, constituted the National Turmeric Board. This board is designed to coordinate efforts across various ministries and institutions, aiming to enhance production, promote exports, encourage value addition, and improve income levels for turmeric farmers.

Statement 1 is correct. According to official data for the year 2022-23, India had a turmeric cultivation area spanning approximately 3.24 lakh hectares, producing around 11.61 lakh tonnes of turmeric. India alone accounted for over 75% of global turmeric production, making it by far the largest producer of turmeric worldwide. Additionally, India also stands as the top exporter of turmeric, accounting for over 62% of the global turmeric trade.

Statement 2 is correct. India's diverse soil types and climatic conditions enable cultivation of more than 30 known varieties of turmeric across various states. Each variety differs in aspects such as curcumin content, aroma, colour, and market use.

Statement 3 is correct. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu consistently rank among the top turmeric-producing states in India.

Statement I is correct. The belt of ancient rocks found along the Brazil coast closely matches with similar rock formations located along the Western African coast, providing strong evidence for the continental drift theory, since these matching rock belts suggest the two continents were once joined together.

Statement II is correct. The gold deposits found in Ghana are believed to have originated from the Brazilian plateau, dating back to a period when the two continents lay adjacent to one another, before later separating due to continental drift.

Statement III is correct. The Gondwana system of sediments, originating from India, has been found to have corresponding counterparts across six different landmasses located within the Southern Hemisphere further reinforcing the idea that these landmasses were once connected as part of a single supercontinent.

The Earth's atmosphere is composed not only of gases, but also contains various solid particles such as dust, sea salt, pollen, and similar substances. These particles are collectively referred to as aerosols and they play an essential role in weather phenomena, including cloud formation, precipitation and visibility.

Statement I is correct. Dust particles tend to be more concentrated within subtropical and temperate regions, primarily due to the presence of dry winds. These regions frequently experience arid and semi-arid climatic conditions, where the absence of substantial vegetation, combined with strong winds, facilitates the suspension of dust particles within the atmosphere. Deserts such as the Sahara, Thar and Arabian Desert all situated within subtropical zones serve as prime examples of major dust sources. In contrast, equatorial regions tend to be humid and heavily vegetated, which suppresses dust generation through regular rainfall and plant cover, while polar regions, being cold and ice-covered, inherently limit any significant dust production.

Statement II is incorrect. Dry winds are prevalent across subtropical and temperate regions, and these winds are precisely why dust concentration tends to be higher in these particular areas contrary to what this statement suggests. Within the subtropics, for instance, descending air currents originating from the subtropical high-pressure belts result in dry and stable atmospheric conditions, which are closely associated with low humidity and dust-prone environments.

Statement I is correct. During January, within the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms tend to bend equatorward as they cross landmasses, while bending poleward as they cross oceans.

Statement II is correct. During January, the air over oceans remains warmer compared to the air over landmasses within the Northern Hemisphere, since land cools down much faster than water during the winter months.

Connecting the statements: Since Statement II explains why the isotherms behave the way described in Statement I the warmer oceanic air causes isotherms to bend poleward over oceans, while the colder landmass air causes them to bend equatorward over continents Statement II correctly explains Statement I, confirming option (a) as the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. Chalk is a soft, sedimentary rock, primarily composed of calcium carbonate, featuring a structure with large, well-connected pores. These pores allow water to pass through easily, making chalk a highly permeable rock. In contrast, clay consists of very fine particles, tightly packed together, with extremely small pores. As a result, water movement through clay occurs very slowly, making it one of the least permeable types of soil or rock. Therefore, regarding water movement, chalk facilitates easy flow, while clay resists it.

Statement 2 is correct. Chalk is not only permeable but also highly porous, meaning it contains numerous tiny holes or voids within its structure. These pores can hold water, enabling chalk to absorb and retain moisture. This explains why chalk feels damp in humid conditions and can crumble easily when wet. Its porous nature is directly responsible for its water-absorbing capacity, which also contributes to its use in agriculture and construction, where water interaction proves important.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Clay is highly porous, containing numerous tiny pores between its fine particles. However, these pores are so small that water moves through them very slowly, making clay poorly permeable. This explains why clay retains water and drains slowly, despite possessing high porosity.

Statement 1 is correct. In the absence of an atmosphere, Earth's average surface temperature would fall to approximately -18°C, dropping well below the freezing point of water, primarily because the natural greenhouse effect would cease to exist. The atmosphere functions as a protective blanket, trapping heat and regulating temperatures without which the planet would become largely uninhabitable.

Statement 2 is correct. The atmosphere helps regulate Earth's temperature by absorbing heat from the Sun during daytime hours, while also slowing its escape during the night. This heat-trapping capability is precisely what maintains the planet's average surface temperature around 15°C (59°F), making it suitable for supporting life. Without this natural insulation, Earth would experience severe temperature fluctuations between day and night, similar to conditions observed on planets and moons with thin or nonexistent atmospheres.

Statement 3 is correct. Certain gases present within Earth's atmosphere, particularly greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane, and water vapor, possess a unique capacity to absorb and trap radiation. This particular property makes them especially effective at retaining heat within the atmosphere, thereby contributing significantly to the overall greenhouse effect.

The Rashtriya Gokul Mission was launched by the Government of India, functioning under the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying, within the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying.

Statement 1 is correct. The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) holds significant importance for the upliftment of the rural poor, given that over 80% of the low-producing indigenous animals are owned by small and marginal farmers, as well as landless labourers. This scheme plays a vital role in enhancing both the milk production and productivity of bovines, aiming to meet the growing demand for milk, while simultaneously making dairying a more profitable venture for the country's rural farmers.

Statement 2 is correct. The Rashtriya Gokul Mission was launched with the objective of promoting the rearing and conservation of indigenous cattle and buffalo breeds, following a scientific and holistic approach. The mission's goals include enhancing the productivity of native breeds, preserving their genetic diversity, and improving rural livelihoods. It focuses on developing high-genetic merit animals through the application of modern breeding technologies, the establishment of "Gokul Grams" (dedicated cattle care centres), and providing support for traditional animal husbandry practices.

The cement industry stands as a significant source of carbon dioxide emissions, arising from both the chemical reactions involved in producing clinker (the main ingredient of cement) and from burning fossil fuels to power the production process. Specifically, calcining limestone — a primary raw material — to produce lime (CaO) releases CO2, while burning fossil fuels to heat kilns also contributes to overall emissions.

Statement I is correct. Global cement manufacturing produced approximately 1.6 billion metric tonnes of CO2 in 2022, the most recent year for which figures are available this amounts to roughly 8% of the world's total CO2 emissions.

Statement II is correct. Silica-bearing clay is combined with limestone during cement manufacturing. The cement production process involves mixing limestone with other materials, such as clay — which contains silica — along with various other minerals. These combined materials are then processed into clinker, a key component of cement.

Statement III is correct. During the process of manufacturing cement clinker, limestone primarily composed of calcium carbonate (CaCO3) is heated to extremely high temperatures (1450°C or 2640°F) within a kiln. This process, known as "calcination," decomposes the limestone into calcium oxide (CaO) commonly referred to as lime along with carbon dioxide (CO2). The resulting lime then reacts with other raw materials, including clay and silica, to form clinker, which serves as the primary ingredient in cement.

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct, though only Statement III explains Statement I:

Statement I is correct. At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India chose not to sign the 'Declaration on Climate and Health.' This declaration calls for deep, rapid, and sustained reductions in greenhouse gas emissions, aiming to achieve health benefits including those stemming from lower air pollution and sustainable dietary practices.

Statement II is incorrect. The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health represents a non-binding, voluntary political declaration, designed to galvanize support for action on climate change and health. It functions as a call to action and a shared vision, rather than serving as a legally enforceable treaty.

Statement III is correct. At COP28, India opted not to sign the "Declaration on Climate and Health." This decision primarily stemmed from concerns regarding the practicality of reducing greenhouse gas emissions from cooling systems within the country's healthcare infrastructure a specific point addressed within the declaration. Concerns were reportedly raised regarding the feasibility of implementing cooling-related decarbonization in a country where access to affordable and reliable cooling particularly within rural or under-resourced health facilities remains essential for operational resilience. India was apprehensive that rigid decarbonization requirements within such critical infrastructure might undermine operational capacity or resilience, especially across heat-prone and underserved regions.

Only Statement III is correct, and Statement III explains Statement I.

Statement I is correct. During the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India was among the countries that did not sign the 'Declaration on Climate and Health.' This particular declaration urges deep, rapid, and sustained cuts in greenhouse gas emissions, with the goal of securing health benefits encompassing improvements such as reduced air pollution and the adoption of sustainable diets.

Statement II is incorrect. The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health, in actuality, functions as a voluntary, non-binding political statement, intended to build momentum and rally support around climate and health-related action. Rather than constituting a legally binding treaty, it instead serves as a collective call to action and a shared, aspirational vision.

Statement III is correct. India's decision to abstain from signing the "Declaration on Climate and Health" at COP28 was largely driven by apprehensions surrounding the practical challenges of cutting greenhouse gas emissions tied to cooling systems within the nation's healthcare sector a specific concern addressed within the declaration itself. Reports indicate that worries emerged over the feasibility of pursuing cooling-related decarbonization, particularly given that dependable, affordable cooling remains critical for healthcare resilience, especially in rural areas or facilities lacking adequate resources. India's underlying concern was that strict decarbonization mandates applied to such vital infrastructure could potentially compromise its functional capacity or resilience, particularly within regions prone to extreme heat and facilities already facing resource constraints.

Only Statement III is correct, and it serves to explain Statement I.

Statement I is correct. Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is frequently discussed in relation to sustainable development and climate change, owing to its provisions for international cooperation in implementing Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). It enables countries to voluntarily cooperate through carbon markets (Articles 6.2 and 6.4) and non-market approaches (Article 6.8) to achieve their climate targets, while simultaneously promoting sustainable development and environmental integrity.

Statement II is correct. Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change establishes the principles governing carbon markets. It provides a framework for international cooperation on emissions reductions, enabling countries to collaborate through carbon trading and other mechanisms to meet their climate targets. Article 6 allows for the transfer of emission reductions between countries, helping them fulfill their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).

Statement III is correct. Article 6 of the Paris Agreement facilitates both market-based and non-market-based international cooperation, enabling countries to achieve their climate targets. It serves as a key mechanism for countries to collaborate in reducing emissions and meeting their NDCs:

Both Statement II and Statement III explain Statement I.

The organization responsible for launching the "Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific" is the Asian Development Bank (ADB). The ADB unveiled this hub at COP28, with the goal of attracting substantial investments in nature-based solutions projects across the Asia Pacific region. It aims to mobilize funding for projects that incorporate nature-based solutions, addressing both climate change and biodiversity loss. The hub specifically targets attracting at least $2 billion in investments.

Statement I is correct. Direct Air Capture (DAC) represents a method that can be utilized for carbon sequestration, also referred to as "Direct Air Carbon Capture and Sequestration (DACCS)." DACCS involves extracting carbon dioxide (CO2) directly from the atmosphere, using either chemical or physical processes, followed by the long-term storage of that captured CO2 — effectively removing it from the atmosphere.

Statement II is correct. Direct Air Capture (DAC) can serve as a valuable approach for certain aspects of both plastic production and food processing, by utilizing captured CO2. DAC extracts CO2 from the atmosphere, which can subsequently be used as a feedstock for producing certain types of plastics, as well as within various food production processes.

Statement III is correct. Direct Air Capture (DAC) technology can be applied within the aviation sector to create synthetic low-carbon fuels. DAC extracts carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere, and this captured CO2 can then be combined with hydrogen — produced through renewable energy sources — to generate synthetic fuels, such as "e-fuels."

Statement I is incorrect. The Peacock tarantula, also known as the Gooty tarantula (Poecilotheria metallica), is a spider. It belongs to the class Arachnida, specifically classified as a tarantula species within the family Theraphosidae. This species is native to deciduous forests in Andhra Pradesh, India, and is recognized for its striking blue coloration which explains why it earned the name "peacock tarantula."

Statement II is correct. The Gooty (Peacock) Tarantula's natural habitat within India remains restricted to specific forest regions, primarily located in the Eastern Ghats and degraded forest areas near Nandyal, Andhra Pradesh. This limited habitat range contributes to its status as a critically endangered species.

Statement III is correct. The Gooty tarantula is arboreal in nature, meaning it lives predominantly within trees, rather than burrowing underground like some other tarantula species. Within its forest habitat, this species utilizes tree hollows and bark crevices as its primary dwelling spaces.

Statement I is incorrect. In 2022, India's per capita emissions stood at 1.89 tonnes CO2 per person. Per capita carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India have risen significantly over recent decades, climbing from 0.4 metric tons per person in 1970 to a peak of 2.07 metric tons per person in 2023.

Statement II is correct. India ranks second within the Asia-Pacific region in terms of CO2 emissions stemming from fuel combustion. China holds the top position within this region, while India follows closely at second place, with 2,516.967 Mt of CO2 emissions, according to data from the International Energy Agency (IEA).

Statement III is correct. Within India, electricity and heat production constitute the largest source of CO2 emissions. Specifically, the power sector, being heavily dependent on coal, contributes substantially to the nation's overall CO2 emissions, which directly impacts climate change. In 2019, the power sector was responsible for approximately 70% of India's total CO2 emissions, making it the single largest contributor to the country's overall emissions profile.

Pair 1 is correctly matched. Cassava is a perennial woody shrub with an edible root, growing across tropical and subtropical regions of the world. It is also known as "yuca," "manioc," and "mandioca." It is cultivated for its starchy tuberous roots, which serve as a major source of carbohydrates.

Pair 2 is correctly matched. Ginger is an herbaceous perennial plant, featuring a unique structure that includes a rhizome (underground stem) and a pseudostem (false stem). The rhizome the fleshy underground stem represents the portion commonly consumed. The pseudostem, formed from tightly wrapped leaf bases, supports the aerial leaves and flowers. This plant belongs to the Zingiberaceae family, which also includes plants such as turmeric and cardamom.

Pair 3 is correctly matched. Malabar spinach (Basella alba) is an herbaceous climber — a fast-growing, soft-stemmed, twining vine capable of growing up to 10 feet in length. It is also known as "vine spinach," "Indian spinach," and "Ceylon spinach."

Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. Mint is not classified as a shrub. Rather, it is categorized as an aromatic perennial herb. Shrubs are typically woody plants with multiple stems, whereas herbs possess softer, non-woody stems. Mint plants feature soft, square stems and spread via both underground and overground runners.

Pair 5 is incorrectly matched. The papaya (Carica papaya) is a large, herbaceous perennial, not a woody shrub. It possesses a single, non-woody trunk that is somewhat succulent and soft-wooded. This trunk does not develop true bark, and is instead marked by scars from old leaf bases. While the papaya resembles a tree-like plant, its trunk lacks the woodiness typical of a conventional tree.

Statement I is incorrect. Rainforests do not produce more oxygen than oceans. The ocean, particularly through the activity of phytoplankton, is estimated to generate a considerably larger share of Earth's oxygen compared to land-based ecosystems such as rainforests. While estimates vary, the ocean is believed to produce a substantial portion of the world's oxygen, ranging between 50% and 80%, whereas land-based ecosystems like rainforests contribute approximately 28%.

Statement II is correct. Marine phytoplankton are primarily responsible for a significant share of Earth's oxygen production, with estimates suggesting they generate between 50% and 80% of the oxygen present in the atmosphere. While synthetic bacteria may play a role in oxygen production under certain circumstances, they are not the primary source of oxygen for the planet.

Statement III is incorrect. The concentration of dissolved oxygen in surface water is much lower than the concentration of oxygen found in air. Air contains approximately 21% oxygen by volume, which is significantly higher than dissolved oxygen levels in water typically ranging around 8-10 mg/L.

Alternative powertrain vehicles refer to vehicles that do not rely solely on conventional internal combustion engines (ICEs) running on petrol or diesel. Instead, they utilize alternative energy sources, such as electricity, hydrogen, or a combination of power sources. These vehicles tend to be more environmentally friendly, often reducing or eliminating tailpipe emissions altogether.

Option I is correct - Full Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs):

Option II is correct - Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicles (FCEVs):

Option III is correct - Fuel Cell Electric Hybrid Vehicles (FCHEVs):

Option I is incorrect. Not all UAVs are capable of vertical landing. Only UAVs specifically designed with VTOL (Vertical Take-Off and Landing) capabilities can perform vertical landings.

Therefore, not all UAVs possess vertical landing capability.

Option II is incorrect. Hovering refers to maintaining a stationary position in the air, without moving forward or backward. Automated hovering means the UAV can maintain its position without requiring manual input. Once again, only certain types of UAVs are capable of this.

Hence, not all UAV types are capable of automatic hovering.

Option III is incorrect. UAVs utilize various power sources, depending on their design and intended use:

Therefore, not all UAVs rely solely on batteries for power.

Most electric vehicles utilize lithium-ion batteries. These batteries feature two key electrodes:

The cathode material determines the battery's energy capacity, lifespan, and safety characteristics.

Option I is correct - Cobalt (used in the Cathode): Cobalt is commonly utilized in EV battery cathodes, particularly within chemistries such as Nickel Manganese Cobalt Oxide (NMC) and Nickel Cobalt Aluminum Oxide (NCA). It enhances both energy density and overall stability.

Option II is incorrect - Graphite (used in the Anode): Graphite is the most common material used for the anode (the negative electrode) within lithium-ion batteries, rather than the cathode as this option suggests.

Option III is correct - Lithium (used in the Cathode): Lithium serves as a fundamental element within lithium-ion batteries, and it is present within the cathode material (examples include lithium cobalt oxide, lithium iron phosphate, and lithium nickel manganese cobalt oxide). The movement of lithium ions between the cathode and anode is precisely how the battery stores and releases energy.

Option IV is correct - Nickel (used in the Cathode): Nickel represents a key element within many high-energy-density EV battery cathodes, such as NMC and NCA. It contributes to achieving higher energy density, thereby enabling longer driving ranges.

Option I is correct - Cigarette Butts: Cigarette filters are predominantly made from cellulose acetate, a man-made plastic derived from cellulose. While it may resemble cotton in appearance, it is a form of plastic that degrades slowly. When discarded, these filters can leach toxic substances, including nicotine and heavy metals, into the environment, posing risks to wildlife and ecosystems.

Option II is correct - Eyeglass Lenses: Modern eyeglass lenses are commonly crafted from plastic materials such as CR-39 (Columbia Resin #39) and polycarbonate. CR-39 is a lightweight plastic, offering good optical clarity, while polycarbonate is known for its impact resistance and UV protection.

Option III is correct - Car Tyres: Tyres contain both natural rubber and synthetic rubber, with the latter being derived from plastic polymers such as styrene-butadiene rubber (SBR) and polybutadiene rubber. These synthetic materials enhance durability, flexibility, and wear resistance, making tyres a significant contributor to microplastic pollution over time.

Coal gasification is a process that converts coal into syngas (synthesis gas) a mixture primarily consisting of carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H₂), carbon dioxide (CO₂), and methane (CH₄). This is achieved by reacting coal at high temperatures (typically above 1000°C) with a controlled amount of oxygen and/or steam. Syngas serves as a valuable feedstock and can be further processed to produce various chemicals, fuels, and fertilizers.

Option I is correct - Ethanol: Ethanol can be produced indirectly from coal through the coal gasification route.

While ethanol is most commonly produced from sugar or starch-based biomass through fermentation (particularly in countries like India and Brazil), coal-to-ethanol technology is used in countries with abundant coal resources but limited agricultural biomass.

Option II is incorrect - Nitroglycerine: Nitroglycerine cannot be produced through coal gasification.

Since neither glycerol nor the acids used in nitration are derived from coal or its gasification products, coal gasification plays no role in the production of nitroglycerine.

Option III is correct - Urea: Urea stands as one of the most important fertilizers and can be produced using coal gasification technology.

The substances CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 all belong to a class of chemicals known as high-energy explosives. These are powerful explosive compounds, developed for military applications, particularly within warheads, bombs, and other precision munitions.

Overview of Each Compound:

Statement I is correct. Microsoft unveiled the Majorana 1 chip, marking it as the world's first quantum chip of its kind, and the company openly stated its belief that this breakthrough "will realize quantum computers capable of solving meaningful, industrial-scale problems in years, not decades."

What makes this chip groundbreaking is its use of the world's first topoconductor an entirely new category of material capable of observing and controlling Majorana particles. This capability allows engineers to build more reliable and scalable qubits, which function as the essential building blocks underlying quantum computing systems.

Statement II is incorrect. The Majorana 1 chip was developed by Microsoft, not by Amazon Web Services (AWS), as this statement wrongly claims. AWS, on its own end, has introduced a separate quantum chip called "Ocelot," which is primarily aimed at advancing quantum error correction techniques rather than pursuing the same approach as Microsoft's chip.

Statement III is correct. Deep learning genuinely does fall under the broader umbrella of machine learning, representing one of its specialized branches rather than existing as a wholly separate field.

Statement I is correct. Monoclonal antibodies are laboratory-engineered proteins, created through biotechnology techniques rather than occurring naturally in the body. Scientists produce them by isolating and cloning a single B-cell (a type of white blood cell) that happens to generate a particular antibody of interest. Because every resulting antibody traces back to copies of that one original cell, the entire batch earns the name "monoclonal."

These engineered proteins are built to mimic the way the body's natural immune system fights off harmful invaders like viruses and bacteria.

Statement II is correct. What makes monoclonal antibodies particularly powerful is their precision each one is specifically designed to latch onto a particular antigen (a distinctive molecule or protein found on the surface of pathogens or diseased cells). Once attached, this binding action can accomplish several things:

Through this targeted binding, monoclonal antibodies effectively boost the body's immune response, helping it combat disease with greater efficiency.

Statement III is correct. Researchers have successfully developed monoclonal antibody treatments for numerous viral diseases, among them:

Statement I is incorrect. Far from being scarce, viruses exist in enormous numbers throughout ocean waters. Scientists estimate that the oceans house more than 10³⁰ viruses, placing them among the most virus-dense environments found anywhere on Earth.

Statement II is incorrect. Contrary to what this statement implies, there does exist a well-documented class of viruses, known as bacteriophages, which are specifically adapted to infect bacteria. These phages are extensively used in scientific research and have even found practical medical applications a field known as "phage therapy" as a potential weapon against antibiotic-resistant bacterial infections. The mechanism works by bacteriophages attaching to bacterial cells, injecting their genetic material, and then hijacking the bacterium's internal machinery to replicate themselves.

Statement III is incorrect. Viruses function as obligate intracellular parasites, meaning they cannot replicate independently and instead depend entirely on host cell machinery to reproduce. To accomplish this, many viruses actively manipulate and alter the host cell's transcriptional processes, along with other cellular functions, in order to favor viral gene expression and facilitate their own replication. This manipulation can take various forms, including activating or suppressing specific host genes, commandeering the host's transcription factors, or even introducing their own transcriptional machinery into the cell.

Statement I is correct. Activated carbon has earned broad recognition for its effectiveness in environmental applications, especially concerning the treatment of industrial effluents and contaminated water or air.

Statement II is correct. Among activated carbon's most significant physical characteristics is its remarkably expansive surface area.

This extensive surface area stems directly from its highly porous internal structure. Such a large surface area creates numerous active sites available for adsorption to occur. This particular property makes activated carbon especially valuable for extracting toxic metals from industrial effluents and polluted water sources.

Consequently, the characteristics described in this statement represent the core scientific explanation behind the effectiveness outlined in Statement I.

Statement III is correct. Activated carbon can be manufactured from a broad range of carbon-rich waste materials, including agricultural byproducts such as coconut shells, rice husks, sawdust, sugarcane bagasse, and nutshells.

These raw materials undergo carbonization and activation processes, which generate the porous structure essential for adsorption to take place.

This straightforward production method, utilizing waste materials, makes activated carbon both accessible and appealing — particularly within developing nations and for large-scale industrial use thereby reinforcing and explaining the attractiveness referenced in Statement I.

Statement I is correct. Under the provisions of Article 123 of the Constitution, the President holds the authority to promulgate an ordinance whenever Parliament happens to be out of session. Such an ordinance carries the same legal force as an Act passed by Parliament, which means it possesses the power to amend or even repeal any existing Central legislation.

Statement II is incorrect. An ordinance remains bound by the same constitutional restrictions that apply to any Act of Parliament. Consequently, an ordinance cannot infringe upon or take away any of the fundamental rights guaranteed under the Constitution — contrary to what this statement suggests.

Statement III is correct. Since an ordinance carries equivalent legal weight to an Act of Parliament, it can take effect retroactively, meaning it may apply from a date prior to its actual issuance, functioning similarly to a retrospective law.

Pair I is correct. The capital city of Arunachal Pradesh is Itanagar, situated within the Papumpare district. This city derives its name from the historic Ita Fort, meaning "Fort of Bricks," which was constructed back in the 14th century AD. Arunachal Pradesh finds mention within ancient Indian texts, including the Kalika Purana and the Mahabharata, where the region is referred to as the "Prabhu Mountains" within the Puranas.

Pair II is correct. The state of Nagaland came into existence on December 1, 1963, following the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962. This amendment inserted Article 371A into the Constitution, providing special provisions for Nagaland, while also amending both the First and Fourth Schedules. Additionally, the State of Nagaland Act, 1962, was enacted to facilitate the state's creation.

Pair III is correct. Based on the four-fold classification applied to states and territories of the Indian Union, as outlined in the Indian Constitution in 1950, Tripura was initially categorised as a Part C state. It later became a Union Territory, following the State Reorganisation Act of 1956, before eventually becoming the 20th state of India in 1972.

Option I is correct. Article 263 of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of the Inter-State Council, aimed at fostering coordination and cooperation between the Centre and the various States. This body functions as a platform where issues of shared concern between the Union and State governments can be discussed and resolved.

Option II is incorrect. The concept of establishing a National Security Council (NSC) in India was first floated during a 1968 seminar held at the Institute for Defence Studies and Analyses (IDSA), which subsequently put forward a formal proposal to the Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC). This idea gained traction in 1990, when Prime Minister V.P. Singh, amid growing concerns over a potential Pakistani nuclear test, pushed the concept forward. Ultimately, the NSC was formally established in 1999, through an executive order issued by the Government of India, dedicated to national security and strategic affairs.

Option III is incorrect. Zonal Councils are statutory bodies, established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, with the purpose of promoting cooperative federalism by facilitating dialogue and coordination between individual states and the central government on key inter-state matters such as border disputes, inter-state transport, river water sharing, economic and social planning, and issues related to security and law and order.

Statement I is correct. The Constitution of India explicitly acknowledges that, in certain circumstances, the Governor is empowered to act on his or her own discretion, as outlined under Article 163. Specifically, Article 163(1) states that the Governor is generally required to act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, except in situations where the Constitution specifically mandates that the Governor exercise discretionary judgment. Building on this, Article 163(2) further clarifies that should any dispute arise regarding whether a particular matter falls within the Governor's discretionary authority, the Governor's own determination on the matter shall be treated as final and importantly, no action taken by the Governor can be legally challenged merely on the grounds that the Governor either should have or should not have exercised this discretionary power.

Statement II is incorrect. As specified under Article 200 of the Indian Constitution, the Governor possesses the authority to reserve certain bills, passed by the State Legislature, for the President's consideration. However, the President can only act once a bill has been specifically forwarded by the Governor the President holds no independent power to reserve a state bill for consideration on his own initiative.

Pair I is correct. Article 50 of the Constitution of India, positioned under Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy), mandates that the State shall take necessary steps toward separating the judiciary from the executive, particularly within the public services of the State.

Pair II is correct. Article 51(f) of the Indian Constitution imposes a duty upon every citizen of India to cherish and safeguard the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Pair III is correct. Article 24, found under Part III (Fundamental Rights), prohibits the employment of children below 14 years of age in factories, mines, or any other form of hazardous work.

Consider the following statements:

The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes, applicable across all states except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The President of India holds the power to declare any particular area as a "Fifth Scheduled Area."

Statement 1 is incorrect. The executive power of a State does extend to the Fifth Scheduled Areas. However, the Governor carries a special responsibility concerning these areas — he must submit a report to the President regarding the administration of such regions, either annually or whenever specifically requested by the President. Additionally, the Centre's executive power extends to issuing directions to the States regarding the administration of these areas. Furthermore, every state containing scheduled areas is required to establish a Tribes Advisory Council, tasked with advising on matters related to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes.

Statement 2 is incorrect. There is no provision under the Fifth Schedule that permits the Union Government to assume complete administrative control over Scheduled Areas. Instead, it is the Governor who is empowered to direct that any specific Act of Parliament or the state legislature either does not apply to a scheduled area, or applies with certain specified modifications and exceptions.

Pair 1 is incorrect. The National Automotive Board (NAB) operates under the Ministry of Heavy Industries. The NAB was constituted back in October 2012 and was subsequently registered under the Registration of Societies Act in August 2013. This organisation provides a unified platform for addressing all matters related to the automotive sector, particularly concerning testing, certification, homologation, and administering the automotive laboratories being established under NATRIP. Its broader purpose is to guide, coordinate, and synergize the government's various efforts within the automotive sector.

Pair 2 is incorrect. The Coir Board falls under the Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME). The Coir Board was established under the Coir Industry Act, 1953, by the Government of India, with the objective of ensuring the overall sustainable development of the coir industry across the country. The Board's functions, as outlined under the Act, include undertaking, assisting, and promoting scientific, technological, and economic research, along with modernization, quality improvement, human resource development, market promotion, and the welfare of all individuals engaged in this industry.

Pair 3 is incorrect. The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) has been established by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Its purpose is to create institutional mechanisms for collecting and disseminating trade data, while also working toward improving business information services.

The procedure for amending the Indian Constitution is governed by Article 368.

This Article specifies that any bill proposing a constitutional amendment needs to clear each House with support from a majority of that House's total membership, coupled with backing from at least two-thirds of those members who are present and cast their vote. Beyond this, when a bill touches upon the Constitution's federal structure, it carries an added requirement: ratification by half of the state legislatures, achieved through a straightforward simple majority.

Option 1 is correct. Per Article 368, this additional ratification requirement needing approval from at least half the State legislatures kicks in whenever an amendment touches:

Option 2 is correct. Article 162 establishes that a State's executive authority covers those subjects on which the State's own Legislature is empowered to legislate. Changing this Article therefore falls within the category requiring state ratification from at least half the States.

Option 3 is incorrect. Article 158 deals with the terms and conditions attached to the Governor's position. Unlike the provisions above, amending Article 158 can be accomplished by Parliament acting alone, through the special majority route, without needing any state-level ratification.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 361 of the Indian Constitution establishes that neither the President nor the Governor of a State can be held answerable before any court for exercising the powers and duties attached to their office, or for any action they undertake or are purported to undertake while carrying out those official responsibilities.

Statement 2 is correct. Article 361(2) further provides that no criminal proceedings may be initiated or continued against either the President or a State's Governor, in any court, throughout their tenure in office.

Statement 3 is correct. The Indian Constitution also extends immunity to members of Parliament and State Legislatures, protecting them from any legal proceedings in any court, concerning anything they may have said or any vote they cast within the legislature or its committees. Article 194 specifically states that "no member of the Legislature of a State shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the Legislature or any committee thereof."

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was brought into existence under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006. This Act provides for the creation of a regulatory board, tasked with protecting the interests of both consumers and entities engaged in specific activities related to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas, while also working to promote competitive markets within this sector.

Only options 2 and 3 are correct. Under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, the Board has been given the mandate to regulate the refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing, and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas excluding, however, the actual production of crude oil and natural gas. Through this regulatory role, the Board works toward ensuring an uninterrupted and sufficient supply of petroleum, petroleum products, and natural gas across all regions of the country.

Given Figures:

Statement I is correct - Revenue Deficit:

By definition, the Revenue Deficit is calculated as Revenue Expenditure minus Revenue Receipts.

Working through the numbers: with Revenue Expenditure standing at ₹80,000 crores and Revenue Receipts at ₹60,000 crores, the resulting Revenue Deficit comes to ₹80,000 - ₹60,000 = ₹20,000 crores.

Statement II is correct - Fiscal Deficit:

By definition, the Fiscal Deficit represents Total Expenditure minus Total Receipts (excluding borrowings).

In this particular scenario, the government's total borrowings amount to ₹10,000 crores, meaning the shortfall between the government's overall expenditure and its non-borrowed receipts is being covered through borrowing this ₹10,000 crore sum.

Since the Fiscal Deficit essentially represents the government's total borrowing requirement, in this case, the borrowings themselves directly correspond to the fiscal deficit figure.

Fiscal Deficit = Borrowings = ₹10,000 crores

Statement III is correct - Primary Deficit:

By definition, the Primary Deficit is calculated as Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments.

Working through the calculation: with the Fiscal Deficit at ₹10,000 crores and Interest Payments at ₹6,000 crores, the resulting Primary Deficit comes to ₹10,000 - ₹6,000 = ₹4,000 crores.

The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) represents a 7,200-kilometer multimodal transportation network, incorporating a combination of ship, rail, and road routes, linking together India, Iran, Russia, Central Asia, and Europe. This initiative was first launched by India, Iran, and Russia back in 2000, with the overarching goal of enhancing trade connectivity by cutting down both the time and cost involved in transportation.

Wet-bulb temperature functions as a measure that combines both dry air temperature and humidity, indicating the lowest possible temperature to which air can be cooled through the evaporation of water. In essence, it serves as a gauge of heat-stress conditions affecting humans.

Once the wet-bulb temperature reaches 35°C, it becomes extremely hazardous for both humans and animals, since sweat can no longer evaporate effectively to cool the body. The World Bank has cautioned that certain parts of India, due to rising global temperatures combined with increasing humidity, could become among the first regions worldwide where wet-bulb temperatures routinely surpass 35°C, posing a severe threat to life.

Statement I is correct. This statement captures the broader climatic risks facing Peninsular India as a result of climate change, which remain closely linked to the rise in wet-bulb temperatures.

The region's tropical location makes it particularly susceptible to intensified monsoon variability, leading to both extreme rainfall events causing floods and cyclones as well as periods of insufficient rainfall, resulting in droughts.

Therefore, while the World Bank's warning emphasizes the health dangers posed by extreme heat and humidity, it also implicitly points to the fact that these same underlying climate shifts will worsen Peninsular India's vulnerability to these damaging hydrometeorological events.

Statement II is correct. This statement accurately conveys the central implication of the World Bank's warning.

When wet-bulb temperatures exceed 35°C, the human body loses its ability to effectively cool itself through sweating and evaporation — processes essential for regulating internal body temperature. This creates life-threatening conditions, even for healthy individuals, and particularly for vulnerable populations such as the elderly, outdoor workers, or those lacking access to cooling facilities.

This same threat extends to numerous animal species as well, which similarly depend on various mechanisms of heat dissipation.

To arrive at the Gross Primary Deficit, the relevant formula to apply is:

Gross Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments

Given values:

Working through the numbers:

Gross Primary Deficit = 50,000 - 1,500 = ₹48,500 crores

Statement I is correct. The 15th Finance Commission recommended grants totaling Rs. 4,800 crore (Rs. 1,200 crore annually) spanning the period from 2022-23 to 2025-26, aimed at incentivizing states to improve their educational outcomes.

Statement II is incorrect. The 15th Finance Commission recommended that 41% of the divisible pool of Central taxes be shared with the States, covering the period 2021-26. This figure represents a 1% reduction from the 42% share recommended by the 14th Finance Commission, adjusted to account for the newly created Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.

Statement III is correct. The 15th Finance Commission recommended Rs. 45,000 crore as a performance-based incentive, available to all states for undertaking agricultural reforms.

Statement IV is correct. The 15th Finance Commission reintroduced "Tax and Fiscal Efforts" as a criterion for horizontal devolution, assigning it a weightage of 2.5%. This criterion is designed to reward states that demonstrate greater efficiency in tax collection. Notably, this particular criterion had previously been employed by both the 11th and 12th Finance Commissions.

The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) operates as a global development cooperative, owned by 189 member countries, and holds the distinction of being the largest development bank in the world.

Statement I is correct. The IBRD primarily extends loans to middle-income countries, along with certain creditworthy low-income nations.

It offers a range of financial products, including loans, guarantees, risk management tools, and advisory services, all aimed at supporting development programs, infrastructure projects, and economic reforms. The underlying goal is to reduce poverty and foster sustainable development within these countries.

Statement II is incorrect. The IBRD is far from the sole institution engaged in poverty reduction efforts. It represents one among five institutions that together comprise the World Bank Group, which also includes:

Collectively, these institutions work together, rather than acting independently, to reduce poverty and advance development worldwide.

Statement III is correct. The IBRD was founded in 1944, during the Bretton Woods Conference, with its original purpose being to finance the reconstruction of European nations devastated by World War II. Following the post-war reconstruction period, its mandate broadened to encompass global economic development and poverty eradication.

Statement I is correct.

RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement): True to its name, RTGS transactions get processed in "real-time" and on a "gross" basis. This essentially means that each transaction is settled individually, immediately upon receipt, with virtually no delay involved. The beneficiary's bank typically receives the funds instantly and the beneficiary's account gets credited within a short window usually within 30 minutes of the transfer message being received.

NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer): NEFT, by contrast, functions on a "Deferred Net Settlement" (DNS) basis. This means that transactions are gathered and processed in batches, at specific time intervals. While NEFT now operates 24×7, the actual settlement process still occurs in half-hourly batches. As a result, payments take some time before being fully settled.

Statement II is incorrect. As per RBI guidelines, incoming RTGS transactions (receiving funds) come free of charge. Banks are prohibited from imposing any fees on beneficiaries for receiving money through RTGS. Similarly, incoming NEFT transactions are also provided free of cost.

Statement III is incorrect. Previously, both RTGS and NEFT functioned only during specific hours on working days. However, significant reforms introduced by the Reserve Bank of India have since made both services available round-the-clock, operating 365 days a year.

NEFT transitioned to a round-the-clock service in 2019, followed by RTGS in 2020. This means that customers can now transfer funds using either system, at any time of the day, on any day of the year, including weekends and bank holidays.

Currently, UPI (Unified Payments Interface) is accepted for international merchant payments beyond India in the following countries:

Therefore, among the countries listed in the question, only three the United Arab Emirates, France, and Singapore officially accept UPI for international merchant payments. Germany and Bangladesh, on the other hand, currently lack any UPI integration.

Statement I is correct. The PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, launched in February 2024, represents an ambitious initiative by the Government of India, aiming to install rooftop solar panels across one crore (10 million) households within the residential sector, targeted for completion by March 2027. This large-scale push toward solar energy adoption marks a significant stride toward achieving energy self-reliance and promoting sustainable energy practices throughout the nation.

Statement II is correct. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has stressed the importance of capacity building under this scheme.

The plan involves providing training at the grassroots level, covering the installation, operation, maintenance, and repair of solar rooftop systems. This initiative ensures the availability of sufficient skilled manpower, necessary to support the widespread adoption of solar energy.

Statement III is correct. A crucial element of the scheme involves developing a skilled workforce to support the solar energy sector. The objectives include:

These initiatives form part of the scheme's capacity-building component, aiming to equip individuals with the necessary skills to contribute to the solar energy ecosystem.

Gandhiji's famous statement, "Sedition has become my religion," was made in the context of the Salt Satyagraha, specifically during the period surrounding his public defiance of the Salt Law at Dandi in 1930. This act of civil disobedience openly breaking a colonial law by producing salt from seawater stood as a direct challenge to British authority, and Gandhiji's remark reflected his readiness to embrace the charge of "sedition" as a matter of principle, given that resisting unjust laws had become, in his words, akin to a religious duty.

The "Dancing Girl" figurine, a renowned artifact from the Indus Valley Civilization, was discovered in 1926 by archaeologist Ernest Mackay at Mohenjo-daro. This bronze statuette, portraying a nude young woman or girl, measures 10.5 cm in height and is particularly notable for its confident, naturalistic posture.

This artifact is widely regarded as a masterpiece of Harappan craftsmanship and stands as a symbol of the cultural sophistication of the Indus Valley people.

Madan Mohan Malaviya completed his law degree from Allahabad University in 1891, subsequently practicing law at the Allahabad High Court. He was widely recognized as a brilliant civil lawyer, earning considerable respect among his peers. When he appeared before the High Court in 1923, after a gap of ten years, it was to support the appeal of 170 individuals who had been sentenced to death by the Sessions judge of Gorakhpur in the Chauri Chaura case. In this case, 225 persons had stood trial for setting fire to the police station at Chauri Chaura (located in Deoria district), resulting in the deaths of one Sub-Inspector and 21 constables, who had been trapped inside the building.

Mahatma Gandhi had consistently opposed untouchability and championed the upliftment of the Depressed Classes, whom he later termed as "Harijans" (meaning "Children of God"). However, it was only after the Poona Pact of 1932 that the upliftment of Harijans emerged as a central focus within his broader social and political programme.

Following this event, Gandhi intensified his efforts toward eliminating untouchability. He launched a nationwide campaign for Harijan welfare, which included establishing the Harijan Sevak Sangh, writing within Harijan journals, and engaging in public initiatives aimed at opening temples and wells to those previously labeled as "untouchables."

During the early 1600s, coinciding with the period of Portuguese exploration and colonial expansion, a significant number of new crops were introduced to India from Europe, the Americas, and other regions of the world. The Portuguese, through their maritime trade routes and settlements, brought various plants that ultimately transformed Indian agriculture, cuisine, and economy.

This includes the introduction of several crops to India via the Portuguese, such as sweet potato, arrowroot, cassava, tomato, chillies, pumpkin, papaya, pineapple, guava, custard apple, groundnut, cashew nut, tobacco, American cotton, and rubber.

Different countries may span multiple time zones, either due to their wide east-west geographical spread or because of overseas territories they hold. However, not every large country operates more than four actual time zones.

Option 1 is correct - the UK has 9 time zones. The UK spans nine time zones — stretching from the Pitcairn Islands (UTC-08:00) to the British Indian Ocean Territory (UTC+06:00) — encompassing places such as the Cayman Islands, Bermuda, and Gibraltar. The main UK region, centered around London, falls within the UTC±00:00 time zone, reflecting the enduring influence of GMT/UTC in global navigation.

Option 2 is correct - Denmark has 5 time zones. Denmark spans five time zones, including Greenland, which operates at UTC-04:00, while the main territory functions at UTC+01:00. Greenland itself contains three additional time zones, mostly falling at UTC-03:00. Near the Arctic Circle, time becomes fluid, with summers bringing perpetual daylight and winters bringing prolonged darkness, making time zones especially crucial for communication and coordination.

Option 3 is correct - New Zealand has 5 time zones. The UTC boundary between New Zealand's islands of Niue and Tokelau appears somewhat arbitrary, given their relative proximity. Despite a 24-hour difference, justified by roughly 700 miles of longitude separation, residents effectively experience the "same day." This Pacific dividing line was chosen in 1884 to avoid global confusion, although the line could have been drawn elsewhere — such as between Colorado and Kansas, or Austria and Hungary. New Zealand's remaining three time zones cover its main territory, the Cook Islands, and the Chatham Islands.

Option 4 is correct - Australia has 9 time zones. Australia's expansive territory includes both its mainland and nearby islands. Settlement on the mainland dates back thousands of years, with British control established in 1788 through convict colonisation. Australia claims islands such as Heard and McDonald Islands (UTC+05:00), Christmas Island (UTC+07:00), and Norfolk Island (UTC+11:00), while its mainland operates across time zones ranging from UTC+08:00 to UTC+10:00.

Option 5 is incorrect - Brazil has 4 time zones. Brazil spans four time zones, owing to its vast size and inclusion of nearby islands. The easternmost zone, UTC-02:00, covers the Rocas Atoll and the Saint Peter and Saint Paul Archipelago. Moving westward, the Amazonas territory falls under UTC-05:00, known for its extensive jungle. This extends to the segment governed by UTC-04:00, while the southeastern region follows UTC-03:00.

Anadyr is a town located in the far eastern part of Russia, within the Chukotka region, while Nome is a town situated in western Alaska, USA. Although these two locations remain geographically close - separated only by the Bering Strait - they lie on opposite sides of the International Date Line (IDL). The IDL functions as an imaginary line, roughly following the 180° longitude, where the calendar date shifts by one day upon crossing it.

Statement I is correct. Anadyr, Russia, and Nome, Alaska, remain geographically close, separated only by the Bering Strait. Nevertheless, they fall on opposite sides of the International Date Line (IDL). This means that even though the clock time might be identical - say, 8:00 AM in both locations - the calendar date would differ. For instance, if it's Monday morning in Anadyr, it would still be Sunday morning in Nome. The IDL creates this one-day gap, despite the minimal physical distance separating the two places.

Statement II is incorrect. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it cannot be Tuesday in Nome. In fact, the situation is reversed - Nome lags behind Anadyr by one day. So if it is Monday in Anadyr, it remains Sunday in Nome. The International Date Line adds a day as one travels westward, and subtracts a day as one travels eastward - which makes Russia (west of the IDL) ahead of the United States (east of the IDL).

The 'Self-Respect Movement' was founded by 'Periyar' E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker in 1925, in Tamil Nadu. This movement aimed to challenge caste-based discrimination, oppose Brahmanical dominance, and promote self-respect and rationalism among the non-Brahmin communities, advocating for social equality and the rejection of superstitious religious practices.

Pair 1 is correct. Botswana ranks among the world's largest producers of diamonds by value. The discovery of diamonds during the 1960s fundamentally transformed the country's economy. Botswana has maintained stable governance along with efficient management of its diamond resources, particularly through its partnership with De Beers.

Pair 2 is correct. Chile forms part of the "Lithium Triangle," alongside Argentina and Bolivia. It holds some of the largest lithium reserves in the world, primarily extracted from salt flats, such as the Salar de Atacama. Lithium remains vital for batteries used in electric vehicles and electronics.

Pair 3 is correct. Indonesia stands as the world's largest producer of nickel. The country holds vast reserves and has emerged as a major player within the global nickel supply chain, crucial for stainless steel production and electric vehicle batteries. Indonesia has also imposed export bans to encourage domestic processing.

Pair 1 is incorrect. Mallorca represents the largest island within the Balearic Islands archipelago, situated in the Mediterranean Sea. This island belongs to Spain, not Italy. Mallorca stands as a popular tourist destination, known for its beaches, limestone mountains, and historic architecture.

Pair 2 is incorrect. Normandy is located in northern France, along the English Channel. This region holds significant historical importance, particularly for the D-Day landings during World War II. Normandy is not part of Spain.

Pair 3 is incorrect. Sardinia ranks as the second-largest island in the Mediterranean, after Sicily. It functions as an autonomous region of Italy, not France. Sardinia lies to the west of the Italian Peninsula and south of the French island of Corsica.

Statement I is correct. Rare earth elements such as europium, terbium, and yttrium play an integral role in producing phosphors, used within display technologies. These phosphors emit specific colours when excited by electrons, enabling the vivid displays found in flat-screen televisions and computer monitors. For instance, europium is used for red phosphors, terbium for green, while yttrium serves as a host lattice for these phosphors.

Statement II is correct. Certain rare earth elements exhibit phosphorescence - a type of photoluminescence where materials emit light after being energized. Elements such as europium and terbium are known for their phosphorescent properties, which are harnessed across various applications, including lighting and display technologies.

Statement II explains Statement I. The phosphorescent properties of rare earth elements represent the underlying reason they are used in manufacturing display screens. The ability of these elements to emit light upon excitation is fundamental to the functioning of phosphors within screens, thereby directly connecting their phosphorescent nature to their application in display technologies.

Indian Railways has undertaken two major initiatives: the National Rail Plan (NRP) and the 'Kavach' Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system. Both initiatives are designed to modernize and secure the railway infrastructure and operations.

Statement I is incorrect. The National Rail Plan (NRP) has been developed with the aim of creating a 'future ready' railway system by the year 2030, not 2028. The plan intends to meet future demand (covering both passenger and freight) up to 2050, and to increase the modal share of railways in freight transport to 45%. It includes investment planning, capacity building, and infrastructure upgrades.

Statement II is incorrect. 'Kavach' represents an indigenous ATP system, developed by the Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO), under Indian Railways. There is no German collaboration involved in its creation.

Statement III is correct. The Kavach system utilizes Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) tags, placed on the railway tracks, especially within station sections. These tags work in coordination with onboard and trackside equipment to detect train location, and automatically apply brakes in case of collision threats, signal violations, or overspeeding.

Option I is correct. The Axiom-4 (Ax-4) mission represents a collaborative effort, involving Axiom Space, NASA, ESA, and ISRO. Scheduled for launch in June 2025, this mission will send a crew to the International Space Station (ISS). Notably, Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla, an Indian Air Force test pilot, will be part of this mission. During the mission, the crew will conduct over 25 experiments, focusing on various aspects of microgravity.

Option II is correct. The Space Docking Experiment (SpaDeX) represents an initiative by ISRO to demonstrate autonomous docking capabilities between two satellites in orbit. While the primary objective is to validate docking technologies, the mission also supports microgravity research through the PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM-4). This module utilizes the spent fourth stage of the PSLV rocket as an orbital platform for conducting experiments in microgravity.

Option III is incorrect. Gaganyaan represents India's ambitious human spaceflight program, aiming to send a crew of three astronauts into a 400 km orbit for a three-day mission.

India's defence forces operate a diverse fleet of aircraft, each serving specific roles such as surveillance, combat, and transportation.

Pair 1 is correct. The Dornier 228 represents a twin-engine turboprop aircraft, utilized by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard for maritime patrol, surveillance, search and rescue, and pollution control missions. Manufactured under license by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), it is equipped with advanced sensors and communication systems, tailored specifically for maritime operations.

Pair 2 is incorrect. The Ilyushin Il-76 functions as a strategic airlifter, rather than a supersonic combat aircraft. Designed by the Soviet Union's Ilyushin design bureau, it serves roles such as transporting heavy machinery, aerial refueling, and emergency response. It represents a four-engine turbofan aircraft, capable of operating in rugged environments, but lacks the speed and agility characteristic of supersonic combat aircraft.

Pair 3 is correct. The C-17 Globemaster III represents a large military transport aircraft, developed by McDonnell Douglas (now Boeing) for the United States Air Force, and also operated by the Indian Air Force. It is designed for rapid strategic airlift of troops and cargo to main operating bases or forward bases within the deployment area. The aircraft is capable of performing tactical airlift, medical evacuation, and airdrops, making it a versatile asset in military logistics.

Artificial rainfall, more commonly known as "cloud seeding," represents a technique used to induce or enhance precipitation from clouds. This method is increasingly being explored within India as a way to combat severe air pollution, particularly in cities like Delhi, where high levels of particulate matter and smog make air quality dangerously poor.

The process of cloud seeding involves dispersing certain substances into the atmosphere, which serve as cloud condensation or ice nuclei. These particles encourage water vapor present in the atmosphere to condense into water droplets or ice crystals. Once these droplets become sufficiently heavy, they fall as rain.

One of the most commonly used chemicals for this purpose is silver iodide (AgI). This compound possesses a crystalline structure, similar to ice, which makes it effective in stimulating the formation of ice crystals within cold clouds. Once seeded, the silver iodide helps initiate the process of condensation and precipitation.

In addition to silver iodide, potassium iodide (KI) is also used. It can serve a similar function, acting as a condensation nucleus, though it remains less commonly used compared to silver iodide. Together, these chemicals can enhance the cloud's ability to produce rainfall, helping to clear out pollutants from the air by washing them down to the ground.

This method has been considered by Indian authorities during peak pollution seasons as a way to create artificial rain, thereby reducing the concentration of pollutants within the lower atmosphere.

Article 72 of India's Constitution grants the President several clemency powers: the ability to issue pardons, grant reprieves and respites, reduce punishments (remission), and suspend, remit, or commute sentences handed down to anyone found guilty of a crime.

These powers extend to:

Statement I is correct. In the 1980 case of Maru Ram v. Union of India, the Supreme Court established that courts retain the authority to review how the President exercises Article 72 powers. Building on this precedent, the 2014 judgment in Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India confirmed that this presidential authority isn't unlimited - courts can step in whenever the power appears to have been misused, exercised dishonestly, or influenced by factors unrelated to the case at hand.

Statement II is incorrect. Article 74 of the Constitution requires the President to follow the guidance and recommendations provided by the Council of Ministers - and this requirement applies equally to decisions involving clemency under Article 72. In other words, the President lacks the authority to make these decisions unilaterally, acting only as advised by the elected government.

Below is a summary of the different clemency mechanisms:

Maintaining order within Parliament and presiding over legislative proceedings falls under the responsibility of the Lok Sabha Speaker. The authority behind this role, along with its operational conditions, traces back to Article 93 and related constitutional clauses.

Statement I is correct. Article 94 specifies that when the Lok Sabha dissolves, the Speaker's tenure doesn't automatically end. Instead, the Speaker stays in position until right before the newly elected Lok Sabha holds its first sitting. This arrangement exists to maintain smooth continuity during the transition to a new legislative term.

Statement II is incorrect. Nowhere does the Constitution mandate that the Speaker must sever ties with their political party upon assuming the role. That said, the Speaker is still expected to conduct themselves impartially, setting aside party interests while performing official duties. Simply retaining party membership doesn't trigger disqualification under the Tenth Schedule's anti-defection provisions. By contrast, Britain follows a different convention its Speaker is required to completely detach from party affiliation, stepping down from membership to preserve strict political neutrality.

Statement III is correct. According to Article 94, removing the Speaker requires a resolution, backed by a majority vote from all sitting members of the House. Before such a resolution can be introduced, a minimum notice period of fourteen days must be observed. This requirement guarantees the Speaker a reasonable chance to respond and present their case.

Introduced through the 52nd Constitutional Amendment in 1985, the Tenth Schedule commonly referred to as the "Anti-Defection Law" sets out the criteria for disqualifying Members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies on grounds of switching political allegiance.

Statement I is incorrect. According to the Tenth Schedule, whenever a dispute arises regarding disqualification under its provisions, it is the Speaker (or the Chairman, depending on the House) who holds the authority to decide not the President, contrary to what this statement suggests. The President plays no part in determining disqualification under anti-defection rules. This differs from the process outlined in Articles 102 and 191, where disqualification matters are settled by the President or Governor, acting on the advice of the Election Commission.

Statement II is incorrect. The phrase "political party" does in fact appear within the Constitution specifically in the Tenth Schedule, which discusses how political parties factor into assessing defection. As an illustration, a member faces disqualification if they choose to voluntarily abandon their membership in the party under whose banner they won election.

Mining activities and mineral resources fall under the regulatory framework established by the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act). This legislation draws a distinction between major minerals and minor minerals.

Statement I is incorrect. The MMDR Act grants state governments the authority to frame regulations governing the grant of concessions such as leases and licenses along with overseeing mining activities involving minor minerals. This authority derives from Section 15 of the Act. Consequently, states possess both administrative control and rule-making capacity over minor minerals found within their respective jurisdictions.

Statement II is correct. The power to classify a particular mineral as a "minor mineral" rests with the central government, exercised through an official notification published in the Government Gazette. This authority stems from Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act. Therefore, while the central government determines which minerals qualify as "minor," the actual regulation of their extraction remains a state-level responsibility.