UPSC Civil Services Examination 2026

UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper 1 Questions & Detailed Solutions

Question-wise solutions, correct options, statement analysis and explanations based on the supplied UPSC PYQ solution document.

Q1 Answer given in source

Question 1: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Explanation

Raga Bilawal is the foundational raga of Hindustani music and uses all Shuddha Swaras (natural notes): Sa, Re, Ga, Ma, Pa, Dha, Ni, Sa.

In Western music, this corresponds to the C major scale.

The equivalent Melakarta raga in Carnatic music is Dheera Shankarabharanam, the 29th Melakarta.

Nat Bhairavi, Hanumatodi, and Kamavardhini correspond to different Hindustani tonal frameworks.

Statement/Option Analysis

(a) Nat Bhairavi — Incorrect: It corresponds broadly to Asavari/Bhairavi-type tonal structures, not Bilawal.

(b) Kamavardhini — Incorrect: Also known as Pantuvarali, it corresponds broadly to Purvi/Marwa-type tonal structures.

(c) Hanumatodi — Incorrect: It corresponds to the Bhairavi tonal framework.

(d) Dheera Shankarabharanam — Correct: It uses all natural notes, making it equivalent to Raga Bilawal.

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Q2 Answer given in source

Question 2: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness

Explanation

The Hilton-Young Commission, officially the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance (1926), recommended fixing the rupee-sterling exchange rate at 1s 6d.

The fixed exchange rate facilitated the payment of Home Charges and remittances from India to Britain.

It also helped maintain confidence in India's currency and India's creditworthiness in international markets.

Indian nationalists criticized the exchange rate because the overvalued rupee made Indian exports relatively expensive and imports cheaper.

Statement/Option Analysis

(a) Correct: The fixed exchange rate facilitated remittances to Britain and supported India's financial credibility.

(b) Incorrect: Although an overvalued rupee could benefit importers, this was not the primary reason for adopting the policy.

(c) Incorrect: The exchange rate did not encourage Indian exports; the overvaluation actually reduced their competitiveness.

(d) Incorrect: Preventing depreciation against gold was not the primary objective of the policy.

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Q3 Answer given in source

Question 3: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Pali texts provide early references to coins such as kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kangnika.

These literary references are supported by archaeological discoveries of punch-marked coins, most of which were made of silver.

The emergence of coinage is closely associated with the Second Urbanization of India from around the 6th century BCE.

The use of standardized coins facilitated trade and contributed to the transition from a barter-based system to a money economy.

Statement Analysis

1. Emergence of urban life — Correct: Coinage and its archaeological distribution are closely associated with the growth of early urban centres.

2. Transition to money economy — Correct: The emergence of standardized coinage indicates increasing monetization and more complex economic transactions.

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Q4 Answer given in source

Question 4: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Explanation

Indian temple architecture is broadly classified into Nagara and Dravida traditions.

The Nagara style is generally characterized by a curvilinear shikhara.

The Chalukyan centres of Aihole, Badami and Pattadakal witnessed experimentation with both Nagara and Dravida architectural features.

Statement Analysis

1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami — Incorrect: It represents an early structural Dravida-style architectural form and does not have a Nagara shikhara.

2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole — Correct: It is associated with a Nagara-style curvilinear shikhara.

3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh — Correct: The Gupta-period temple is an important early example of Nagara-style architecture.

4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal — Incorrect: Built under Queen Lokamahadevi, it is a prominent example of the Dravida style.

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Q5 Answer given in source

Question 5: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (b) Yaksha (demi-gods)

Explanation

Jainism recognizes four principal gatis (forms of existence) within the cycle of samsara:

Deva — gods/celestial beings

Manushya — human beings

Tiryancha — animals and plants

Naraki — hellish beings

Yakshas and Yakshinis have an important place in Jain tradition as attendant deities associated with the Tirthankaras, but Yaksha is not one of the four gatis.

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Q6 Answer given in source

Question 6: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (a) A joyous folk dance

Explanation

The Bagh Caves are a group of nine rock-cut caves located near Bagh in Dhar district, Madhya Pradesh.

They date broadly to the 5th–6th century CE.

Their mural paintings are often compared with the paintings of Ajanta.

Hallisalasya refers to a group or joyous folk dance depicted in the murals.

The scene portrays dancers participating in a lively and festive movement.

Statement/Option Analysis

(a) A joyous folk dance — Correct: Hallisalasya represents a lively group dance.

(b) Buddha in a meditative pose — Incorrect: Although the caves are Buddhist, this particular painting depicts a dance.

(c) Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha — Incorrect: This is not the subject of the Hallisalasya painting.

(d) Samudramanthan — Incorrect: The painting does not depict the Churning of the Ocean.

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Q7 Answer given in source

Question 7: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The place-value system is one of India's major contributions to mathematics and gradually became established in epigraphic usage.

The Mankani/Sankheda copper plates of Gujarat, dated to AD 595–596, are recognized as early epigraphic evidence of the place-value system.

By the 9th century, place-value notation had become widespread in inscriptions across India.

Evidence of the Indian place-value system is also found in Sanskrit inscriptions of Southeast Asia dating from as early as the 7th century.

Statement Analysis

1. Correct: The Mankani plates provide early epigraphic evidence of the place-value system.

2. Correct: By the 9th century, place-value notation had become common in inscriptions across India.

3. Correct: Sanskrit inscriptions in Southeast Asia provide evidence of the spread of Indian mathematical knowledge.

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Q8 Answer given in source

Question 8: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The archaeological remains of the Harappan Civilization provide evidence of advanced urban planning, craft production, and knowledge of measurement.

The widespread discovery of spindle-whorls, along with the absence of spinning wheels, indicates that spinning was performed manually.

Standardized weights and graduated measurement scales demonstrate a considerable degree of mathematical and metrological knowledge.

Houses with private wells, courtyards and bathing platforms indicate individual household arrangements rather than a common property system.

Statement Analysis

1. Correct: Spindle-whorls indicate that spinning was performed manually and was therefore a labour-intensive domestic activity.

2. Correct: Standardized weights and graduated scales demonstrate the Harappans' knowledge of measurement and standardization.

3. Incorrect: Houses with their own wells and other private facilities suggest private

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Q9 Answer given in source

Question 9: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.

Explanation

The Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) was launched in Gujarat against an increase in land revenue imposed by the colonial government.

It was led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and became an important peasant movement.

The Eka Movement (1921–22) developed in parts of Awadh, particularly Hardoi, Bahraich and Sitapur, against oppressive rent demands and exploitation by landlords and taluqdars.

The Eka Movement initially received support from Congress and Khilafat leaders but later moved beyond their control.

Statement/Option Analysis

(a) Incorrect: The Eka Movement was not throughout controlled by Congress, while Bardoli was associated with Congress leadership from the beginning.

(b) Incorrect: Taluqdars were among those against whom the peasants mobilized; they did not provide the leadership of the Eka Movement. Bardoli was not a movement of landless labourers.

(c) Correct: Bardoli opposed enhanced government land revenue, whereas Eka opposed excessive rent extraction.

(d) Incorrect: Eka was located in Awadh, not Varanasi and Mirzapur, while Bardoli was in Gujarat, not Saurashtra.

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Q10 Answer given in source

Question 10: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

The Rigveda contains references that provide information about agriculture, irrigation and the use of animals.

References to ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) indicate methods used for drawing water from wells.

The use of oxen for ploughing and pulling carts existed even before the Rigvedic period and continued during it.

References to parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle) indicate agricultural tools, but they do not specifically establish the use of wells or draught animals for drawing water.

Statement Analysis

1. Correct: The references to the stone pulley and wooden pails directly support the use of well-based irrigation.

2. Incorrect: Axes and sickles relate to agricultural activities such as land clearing and harvesting, not specifically to well irrigation or draught-animal power.

3. Correct: The pre-Rigvedic use of oxen for ploughing and pulling carts supports the existence of established draught-animal power.

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Q11 Answer given in source

Question 11: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (d) 3

Explanation

The assertion concerns the possibility of ancient river connections and shifts during the Pleistocene period.

Geological theories suggest the existence of a large ancient river system, sometimes referred to as the Indo-Brahma or Shiwalik river, extending along the Himalayan region.

Subsequent geological changes are believed to have contributed to the development and separation of the Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra river systems.

The presence of closely related river dolphins of the genus Platanista in both the Indus and Ganga systems provides biological evidence supporting the possibility of an earlier connection between the two systems.

Statement Analysis

1. Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda — Incorrect: It mentions and praises rivers but does not provide geological evidence for Pleistocene river shifts.

2. Explorations by Robert Bruce Foote — Incorrect: Robert Bruce Foote is primarily associated with the discovery and study of Palaeolithic tools in India.

3. Same species of dolphins in both river systems — Correct: The distribution of closely related river dolphins provides biological evidence of a historical connection.

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Q12 Answer given in source

Question 12: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (a) The meditation of the Buddha

Explanation

Early Buddhist art was largely aniconic, meaning that the Buddha was not initially represented through a human figure.

Instead, important events and aspects of the Buddha's life were represented through symbols.

An empty seat or throne symbolized the Buddha's presence and meditation, particularly in association with his enlightenment.

Other important symbols include:

Bodhi tree — enlightenment

Dharma Chakra — First Sermon

Footprints — presence of the Buddha

Stupa — Mahaparinibbana

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Q13 Answer given in source

Question 13: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation

Table included in the source file

Ancient Name	Modern River
Vitasta	Jhelum
Asikni	Chenab
Parushni	Ravi
Vipasha/Vipash	Beas
Shutudri	Sutlej

The ancient Vedic names of several rivers of the Punjab region can be identified with their modern counterparts.

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Q14 Answer given in source

Question 14: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

The Amaravati Stupa, also known as the Mahachaitya, was located in the lower Krishna valley in present-day Andhra Pradesh.

It developed over several phases from around the 3rd century BCE to about 250 CE and received patronage from the Satavahanas and Ikshvakus.

The Amaravati school of sculpture is particularly known for detailed reliefs depicting episodes from the life of Buddha and Jataka stories.

Its artistic influence extended to later South Indian sculpture and to regions such as Sri Lanka and Southeast Asia.

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Q15 Answer given in source

Question 15: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation

The early historical period of Tamilakam was dominated by the three major ruling houses collectively known as the Muvendar:

Cheras

Cholas

Pandyas

Information about their rulers is found mainly in Sangam literature.

Statement Analysis

1. Senguttuvan : Chera — Correct: Senguttuvan, also known as Cheran Senguttuvan, was a prominent Chera ruler.

2. Udiyanjeral : Chola — Incorrect: Udiyanjeral was an early Chera ruler, not a Chola ruler.

3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya — Correct: Nedunjeliyan was a prominent ruler of the Pandya dynasty.

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Q16 Answer given in source

Question 16: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Subhas Chandra Bose won the Congress presidential election at the Tripuri session in 1939.

However, he faced strong opposition from the Gandhian leadership and was unable to function effectively as Congress President.

The Congress Left was divided, and different groups did not provide unified support to Bose.

Supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders such as Jayaprakash Narayan emphasized maintaining Congress unity rather than supporting Bose's confrontation with the Gandhian leadership.

Bose resigned from the Congress presidency in April 1939 and formed the Forward Bloc in May 1939.

Statement Analysis

1. Correct: Bose failed to secure the confidence and cooperation of Mahatma Gandhi and the Gandhian leadership.

2. Correct: The Congress Left was divided and failed to provide a united front behind Bose.

3. Incorrect: The Communists had initially supported Bose during the Tripuri crisis; therefore, the statement is not correct in the context of the formation of the Forward Bloc.

4. Correct: The M.N. Roy group and socialist leaders such as Jayaprakash Narayan preferred preserving Congress unity.

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Q17 Answer given in source

Question 17: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (a) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Following the annexation of Awadh in 1856, the British introduced a Summary Revenue Settlement.

The British dispossessed many taluqdars of their estates.

Taluqdars were treated as interlopers who were believed to have acquired land at the expense of peasants.

The British attempted to establish direct revenue collection from peasants by removing the taluqdars as intermediaries.

The taluqdars were also disarmed and their forts were demolished, contributing to their resentment against British rule.

Statement Analysis

1. Incorrect: The taluqdars were dispossessed and were not allowed to retain their arms and forts.

2. Correct: The Summary Settlement treated taluqdars as outsiders/interlopers.

3. Correct: The British sought to collect revenue directly from peasants by removing the taluqdars.

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Q18 Answer given in source

Question 18: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 retained and expanded the system of separate electorates introduced earlier under the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909.

Separate electorates strengthened political mobilization along community-based lines.

The colonial policy of separate representation was intended to address different community interests but also contributed to the development of communal political identities.

Communities that received or sought separate political representation increasingly organized around their specific interests.

Statement Analysis

1. Correct: The 1919 reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.

2. Correct: Separate electorates were used within the colonial constitutional framework at a time when Indian nationalism was becoming increasingly powerful.

3. Correct: Communities seeking political representation could mobilize around the benefits and opportunities associated with separate electorates.

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Q19 Answer given in source

Question 19: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Explanation

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur (1910–1992) was a renowned Hindustani classical vocalist from Karnataka.

He became a distinguished exponent of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana.

The gharana is particularly associated with complex raga structures, melodic patterns and sophisticated raga elaboration.

Mansur received training from prominent musicians, including Manji Khan and Bhurji Khan.

He was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 1992.

Option Analysis

(a) Agra Gharana — Incorrect

(b) Gwalior Gharana — Incorrect

(c) Patiala Gharana — Incorrect

(d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana — Correct

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Q20 Answer given in source

Question 20: Solution & Explanation

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Correct Answer: (b) Atharvaveda

Explanation

The term kshetra-patni, meaning “mistress of the field,” is found in the Atharvaveda.

The term provides an indication of the association of women with agricultural land in Vedic society.

The Atharvaveda contains material relating to everyday life, agriculture and domestic affairs and therefore provides useful information about social and economic practices of the period.

Option Analysis

(a) Rigveda — Incorrect: The term in question is associated with the Atharvaveda.

(b) Atharvaveda — Correct: The term kshetra-patni originates here.

(c) Ashtadhyayi — Incorrect: It is a grammatical work associated with Panini.

(d) Arthashastra — Incorrect: It is a treatise dealing primarily with statecraft, administration and political economy.

Below is the reframed version in English only, with the important terms bolded and the original meaning preserved.

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Q21 Option B

Question 21: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement I – Correct:
India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is an important strategic framework for achieving Net-Zero Emissions by 2070. It provides a roadmap for sectoral transitions in energy, transport, industry, and forestry to support India’s long-term climate objectives.

Statement II – Incorrect:
India’s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) recorded an approximately 8% decline in greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 compared to 2019. However, this decline was largely due to the COVID-19 pandemic, economic slowdown, and lockdowns, rather than structural or strategic long-term emission-reduction measures. Hence, it cannot be considered empirical evidence supporting the strategic framework of LT-LEDS.

Statement III – Correct:
The IPCC emphasizes that climate-resilient development requires rapid, deep, and immediate emission reductions. This short-term approach may appear inconsistent with a purely long-term strategy such as LT-LEDS if the latter does not adequately incorporate aggressive short-term actions.

Therefore, Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in Statement I, making Option B correct.

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Q22 Option B

Question 22: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct:
The Western Hoolock Gibbon is native to North-East India. The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam is an important protected area dedicated to its conservation. The species is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

Statement 2 – Correct:
Hoolock Gibbons are highly arboreal canopy-dwellers. They primarily move through brachiation, using their exceptionally long arms to swing from one tree branch to another.

Statement 3 – Incorrect:
Gibbons are classified as “Lesser Apes” under the family Hylobatidae. Unlike Great Apes, such as gorillas, Hoolock Gibbons have a small, slender, and lightweight body. Adults generally weigh around 6–9 kg, which facilitates their movement through the forest canopy.

Therefore, Option B is correct.

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Q23 Option D

Question 23: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Incorrect:
Mangroves do not store freshwater and are not naturally suited for paddy cultivation. Historically, the clearing of mangrove forests for agricultural land, including paddy fields, has been a major cause of their destruction.

Statement 2 – Incorrect:
Mangroves are halophytes, meaning they are salt-tolerant rather than salt-sensitive. Their specialized root systems can restrict salt uptake. Moreover, clearing mangrove forests for shrimp farming and aquaculture is a major threat to these ecosystems.

Statement 3 – Correct:
Mangroves function as natural bio-shields along coastlines. Their dense root systems, including stilt roots and pneumatophores, stabilize coastal soils and reduce tidal energy, thereby protecting coastal areas from cyclones and storm surges. They also provide resources such as timber, honey, and fish breeding grounds, supporting the livelihoods of coastal communities.

Therefore, Option D is correct.

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Q24 Option D

Question 24: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Incorrect:
The Vizhinjam International Seaport is designed primarily as an international container transshipment hub, rather than an exclusively domestic cargo hub. Its transshipment model involves large mother ships unloading cargo, which can then be transported to other Indian ports through smaller coastal feeder vessels. The port also seeks integration with global shipping networks and international shipping lines.

Statement 2 – Incorrect:
Although Vizhinjam has provisions for a cruise terminal, its primary focus is international container transshipment and multi-purpose cargo handling. It is not primarily designed for passenger cruise tourism or heritage shipping.

Statement 3 – Correct:
Vizhinjam has a natural deep draft of around 18–24 metres, enabling it to handle Ultra Large Container Ships (ULCS). It is located approximately 10 nautical miles from the major East-West international shipping route. The port aims to attract transshipment cargo that has historically been handled by foreign hubs such as Colombo, Singapore, and Jebel Ali.

Therefore, Option D is correct.

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Q25 Option C

Question 25: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

The Sutlej River satisfies all the given criteria.

Antecedent drainage: The Indus, Brahmaputra, and Sutlej are classic examples of antecedent rivers. They existed before the major uplift of the Himalayas and maintained their courses by cutting through the rising mountains.

Flows through three countries: The Sutlej flows through China (Tibet), India, and Pakistan. The Indus and Brahmaputra also flow through three countries, whereas the Teesta flows through only India and Bangladesh.

Origin: The Sutlej originates near Rakshastal, close to Mansarovar, on the Tibetan Plateau.

Does not form distributaries: Unlike the Indus and Brahmaputra, the Sutlej does not form a major deltaic distributary system. It joins the Chenab to form the Panjnad, which subsequently joins the Indus.

Therefore, Option C is correct.

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Q26 Option C

Question 26: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct:
Uttar Pradesh shares boundaries with the highest number of Indian states and Union Territories. It borders 8 states—Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Bihar—and 1 Union Territory, Delhi.

Statement 2 – Incorrect:
West Bengal has the longest international border among Indian states, measuring approximately 2,509 km. It shares international boundaries with Bangladesh, Bhutan, and Nepal. Rajasthan’s international boundary with Pakistan is approximately 1,070 km.

Statement 3 – Incorrect:
Sikkim is not the only Indian state sharing a boundary with just one other state. Sikkim borders only West Bengal, while Meghalaya borders only Assam.

Therefore, Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect, making Option C correct.

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Q27 Option A

Question 27: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct:
Doyang Lake in Nagaland represents a major community-led conservation success. Large-scale hunting of Amur Falcons was previously reported in the region. Following sustained efforts by conservationists, NGOs, the Nagaland Forest Department, and local communities, hunting was stopped. Nagaland subsequently gained recognition as the “Falcon Capital of the World.”

Statement 2 – Incorrect:
Scientists use advanced tracking technologies, including lightweight solar-powered satellite transmitters, to study the migration routes, stopover duration, and flight patterns of Amur Falcons. These devices monitor the birds but do not guide them. The birds depend on natural navigation and environmental cues.

Statement 3 – Incorrect:
Amur Falcons are long-distance migratory raptors, not permanent residents of India. They breed in Siberia and Northern China and migrate to Southern Africa for wintering. During their approximately 22,000 km migration, they use Doyang Lake as a temporary stopover, particularly during October–November, before continuing their journey across the Arabian Sea.

Therefore, Option A is correct.

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Q28 Option D

Question 28: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Incorrect:
The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) scheme promotes Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) rather than monoculture. It combines multi-cropping, crop rotation, horticulture, livestock, fishery, and agro-forestry to diversify income and improve agricultural resilience.

Statement 2 – Incorrect:
RAD primarily targets rainfed areas, where assured irrigation is unavailable. It is not intended to promote water-intensive crops such as rice in already irrigated regions.

Statement 3 – Correct:
The primary objective of RAD is to make rainfed agriculture more productive, sustainable, remunerative, and climate-resilient. Through Integrated Farming Systems, it reduces risks arising from drought, heat stress, floods, and crop failure while helping stabilize farmers’ incomes.

Therefore, Option D is correct.

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Q29 Option C

Question 29: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct:
OEKO-TEX certification involves rigorous testing of textiles for harmful substances, heavy metals, and toxic chemicals. Such certification can strengthen the international marketability of Eri Silk and help Indian exporters access premium markets where product safety and environmental standards are important.

Statement 2 – Correct:
The certification indicates compliance with strict safety, environmental, and human-health standards. These standards are particularly valued in premium and eco-conscious markets in regions such as Europe and North America.

Along with its GI status and reputation as a cruelty-free “peace silk,” the certification strengthens Eri Silk’s position as an eco-friendly premium textile.

Therefore, both statements are correct, making Option C correct.

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Q30 Option B

Question 30: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct:
Bahrain is an island country located entirely within the Persian Gulf. The Strait of Hormuz provides the principal maritime passage connecting the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and the wider ocean. Therefore, ships from Bahrain heading towards the Indian Ocean generally pass through the Strait of Hormuz.

Statement 2 – Incorrect:
Syria lies along the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea and has no coastline on the Persian Gulf. Ships from Syria can reach the Indian Ocean through the Suez Canal → Red Sea → Bab el-Mandeb, without passing through the Strait of Hormuz.

Statement 3 – Correct:
Qatar is a peninsula located on the northeastern Arabian Peninsula and is surrounded by the waters of the Persian Gulf. Ships from Qatar heading towards the Indian Ocean pass through the Strait of Hormuz.

Statement 4 – Incorrect:
Egypt has coastlines on the Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea. Ships can reach the Indian Ocean through the Red Sea and Bab el-Mandeb, without entering the Persian Gulf or crossing the Strait of Hormuz.

Therefore, Option B is correct.

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Q31 Option A

Question 31: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Ecuador is the correct answer.

The Tungurahua Volcano is a highly active stratovolcano located in the Cordillera Oriental of the Central Andes in Ecuador. Its name means “Throat of Fire” in the indigenous Quichua language.

In April 2025, the volcano and its surrounding region were designated as a UNESCO Global Geopark. The geopark covers more than 2,300 sq. km across the Tungurahua and Chimborazo provinces and preserves a geological history spanning more than 417 million years, including volcanic and glacial formations.

It is located within the broader region of Sangay National Park and overlooks the town of Baños de Agua Santa.

Although Peru, Bolivia, and Colombia also contain major Andean volcanic formations, Tungurahua is located in Ecuador.

Therefore, Option A is correct.

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Q32 Option B

Question 32: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct:
Madhav National Park was declared India’s 58th Tiger Reserve and Madhya Pradesh’s 9th Tiger Reserve by the Union Environment Ministry in March 2025. This followed a successful tiger reintroduction programme that began in 2023.

Statement 2 – Correct:
Sakhya Sagar is a human-made reservoir constructed in 1918 and located within Madhav National Park. It was designated a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance in 2022 and is known for its marsh crocodiles and migratory waterfowl.

Statement 3 – Incorrect:
Madhav National Park lies entirely within Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh, on the northern fringe of the Central Highlands. It does not extend into Rajasthan.

Therefore, Option B is correct.

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Q33 Option B

Question 33: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct:
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands experience a humid tropical coastal climate. Their proximity to the equator and surrounding ocean result in relatively uniform temperatures of around 23°C–31°C and high relative humidity throughout the year.

Statement 2 – Correct:
The islands receive substantial rainfall from both the South-West Monsoon and the North-East Monsoon, making their rainfall pattern distinctive.

Statement 3 – Incorrect:
The maximum rainfall occurs mainly during the South-West Monsoon, particularly from May to September, with heavy rainfall generally occurring during July and August. The period from December to May is comparatively drier and forms the main tourist season.

Therefore, Option B is correct.

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Q34 Option B

Question 34: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct:
During the Early Tertiary period, the western flank of the Peninsular Block underwent tectonic subsidence. This resulted in partial submergence beneath the sea, contributing to the development of the present submerged western coastline and altering the original drainage pattern.

Statement 2 – Correct:
The Peninsular Block is an ancient, rigid, and relatively stable landmass. It contains highly denuded relict and residual mountains. Examples include the Aravalli, Nallamala, Javadi, Veliconda, Palkonda, and Mahendragiri Hills.

Statement 3 – Incorrect:
The Peninsular drainage system is much older than the Himalayan drainage system, and many of its rivers have attained a more mature stage. They generally have broad, shallow, and graded valleys with relatively low gradients.

Features such as deep gorges, V-shaped valleys, rapids, and waterfalls are more characteristic of youthful topography and active vertical erosion, particularly in the Himalayan river system.

Therefore, Option B is correct.

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Q35 Option B

Question 35: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Relationship 1 – Correct:
The Sagarmala Programme, launched in 2015, focuses on port-led economic development through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. The reported growth in coastal shipping, expansion of inland waterway cargo movement, and improvement in the global ranking of Indian ports provide evidence of developments associated with these objectives.

Relationship 2 – Correct:
Sagarmala 2.0 expands the programme towards smart ports, green shipping, and maritime innovation. It builds upon the foundational infrastructure created under the original Sagarmala Programme while incorporating a broader technology-oriented and future-focused approach.

Relationship 3 – Incorrect:
The original Sagarmala Programme and Sagarmala 2.0 are not contradictory. The infrastructure and connectivity developed under the original programme provide the foundation for the newer focus on technology, innovation, smart ports, and green shipping.

Therefore, Relationships 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B correct.

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Q36 Option B

Question 36: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct:
Rhynchostylis retusa, commonly known as the Foxtail Orchid, is an epiphytic orchid. It grows on the trunks and branches of trees, using them for physical support while obtaining moisture from the surrounding environment. It is not a parasite.

Statement 2 – Incorrect:
The species is not endemic to North-East India. It has a broad distribution across Tropical Asia, including China, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, Indonesia, and the Philippines.

Within India, it is found not only in the North-East but also in regions such as Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Statement 3 – Correct:
The Foxtail Orchid is recognized as the State Flower of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. In Assam, it is popularly known as Kopou Phool and has cultural significance, particularly in Bihu celebrations and traditional ceremonies.

Therefore, Option B is correct.

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Q37 Option C

Question 37: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Incorrect:
Moidams, also known as Maidams, were not military fortresses. They are traditional mound-burial systems associated with the Tai-Ahom tradition.

Statement 2 – Incorrect:
Moidams were not constructed as recreation centres for Ahom royalty or nobles.

Statement 3 – Correct:
Moidams functioned as royal necropolises, serving as burial grounds for Ahom kings, queens, and nobles. The burial vaults contained the remains of the deceased along with valuable objects and other items associated with their beliefs about the afterlife.

The largest concentration of Moidams is located at Charaideo, Assam, the first capital of the Ahom Kingdom. In July 2024, the Moidams of Charaideo were inscribed as India’s 43rd UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Statement 4 – Incorrect:
Moidams were not used as battle drill centres.

Therefore, only Statement 3 is correct, making Option C correct.

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Q38 Option B

Question 38: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) works within a strategic framework aligned with the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. Its approach focuses on transforming agrifood systems to make them more efficient, inclusive, resilient, and sustainable.

This framework is organized around the “Four Betters”:

Better Production – Promoting sustainable consumption and production patterns.

Better Nutrition – Addressing hunger, achieving food security, and improving access to healthy diets.

Better Environment – Protecting, restoring, and promoting the sustainable use of terrestrial and marine ecosystems.

Better Life – Promoting inclusive economic growth, reducing inequalities, and ensuring that no one is left behind.

The Blue Transformation is an FAO priority that seeks to maximize the contribution of aquatic food systems, including fisheries and aquaculture, towards achieving the Four Betters.

Options A, C, and D are incorrect because terms such as “better ocean,” “better coral reefs,” “better estuaries,” and “better mangrove vegetation” are not part of the official Four Betters framework.

Therefore, Option B is correct.

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Q39 Option B

Question 39: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct:
Lake Turkana is the world’s largest permanent desert lake and the world’s largest alkaline lake. By volume, it is also considered the fourth-largest salt lake in the world.

Statement 2 – Incorrect:
Lake Turkana is located in the Great Rift Valley of East Africa. It lies predominantly in northern Kenya, with its northern tip extending into Ethiopia. It is not located in South Sudan and is not associated with the Sahara Desert.

Statement 3 – Correct:
The Lake Turkana National Parks, comprising Sibiloi, South Island, and Central Island National Parks, are collectively recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Lake Turkana is also popularly known as the “Jade Sea” because of its distinctive turquoise-green colour, associated with the presence of blue-green algae (cyanobacteria).

Therefore, Option B is correct.

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Q40 Option C

Question 40: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project is recognized as India’s first REDD+ project. REDD+ stands for Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation.

The project is certified under the Plan Vivo Standard, a framework designed for community-based forest carbon projects.

It is located in the East Khasi Hills District of Meghalaya, within the Umiam River watershed. The project is managed through a federation of 10 indigenous Khasi tribal kingdoms, representing more than 60 local communities, known locally as a Synjuk.

The project uses REDD+ to conserve existing dense forests and ancient sacred groves, while Assisted Natural Regeneration (ANR) is used to restore degraded open forests.

Uttarakhand REDD+ Project: Incorrect. Although Uttarakhand has undertaken REDD+ readiness and pilot initiatives, it does not hold the distinction of being the first Plan Vivo-certified community project in India.

ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ Project: Incorrect. This is a broader transboundary initiative focused on capacity building and REDD+ readiness across the Himalayan region.

Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ Project: Incorrect. Although Sikkim has undertaken forest conservation and climate mitigation initiatives, the Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project is recognized as India’s first Plan Vivo-certified REDD+ project.

Therefore, Option C is correct.

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Q41 Option C

Question 41: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct:
Genetic medicines, including gene therapy and gene editing, aim to treat or prevent diseases at their root cause. They work by introducing, removing, or modifying genetic material to correct or compensate for faulty or missing genes responsible for a disease.

Statement 2 – Correct:
Genetic material generally requires a carrier or vector to enter target cells effectively. Engineered viruses, such as adeno-associated viruses (AAVs) and lentiviruses, can be modified to remove their disease-causing properties and used to deliver therapeutic genetic material.

Lipid nanoparticles (LNPs) are important non-viral vectors that can encapsulate genetic payloads such as mRNA or CRISPR-Cas9 components and deliver them into cells.

Statement 3 – Incorrect:
Genetic medicines do not modify the entire DNA sequence of an individual. The human genome contains approximately 3 billion base pairs and more than 20,000 genes. Gene therapies generally target specific genes or genetic sequences, while the vast majority of the individual’s DNA remains unchanged.

Therefore, Option C is correct.

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Q42 Option B

Question 42: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct:
At their core, Large Language Models (LLMs) process the input context and calculate the probability distribution of possible next tokens. In basic greedy decoding, the model selects the token with the highest probability.

Modern applications may use techniques such as top-k sampling or temperature scaling to introduce controlled randomness and generate more varied responses. However, the fundamental mechanism involves predicting the probability of the next token.

Statement 2 – Correct:
LLM training relies heavily on mathematical optimization. Techniques such as backpropagation and Stochastic Gradient Descent (SGD) are used to adjust billions of model parameters.

The primary objective is to minimize a loss function, which measures the difference between the model’s predictions and the expected outputs in the training data.

Statement 3 – Incorrect:
LLMs do not inherently produce unbiased outputs. Since they are trained on large amounts of human-generated data, they can inherit and sometimes amplify existing social, cultural, gender, and racial biases present in their training datasets.

Therefore, Option B is correct.

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Q43 Option C

Question 43: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct:
The primary objective of stealth technology is to reduce an object's Radar Cross-Section (RCS), making it appear smaller to radar systems.

This is achieved through techniques such as:

Geometric shaping to deflect radar waves away from the source.

Radar Absorbing Materials (RAM) that absorb electromagnetic energy and convert it into other forms, including heat.

Statement 2 – Correct:
Stealth technology does not make an object completely invisible. Aircraft are generally optimized to reduce detection by certain high-frequency radars, such as X-band radars, which are commonly used for precise tracking and targeting.

However, low-frequency VHF and UHF radars may detect stealth aircraft because their longer wavelengths interact differently with the aircraft’s physical dimensions. Such systems may have lower resolution and may not necessarily provide the precision required for a missile lock.

Statement 3 – Incorrect:
Metamaterials are artificially engineered structures with unusual electromagnetic properties. In advanced stealth applications, they can be designed to reduce radar scattering by absorbing or redirecting electromagnetic waves.

Increasing radar scattering would make an object more detectable, which would defeat the purpose of stealth technology.

Therefore, Option C is correct.

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Q44 Option B

Question 44: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Incorrect:
Aircraft black boxes are equipped with an Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB). When submerged in water, the beacon activates and emits acoustic pulses, typically around 37.5 kHz, which can be detected by sonar-based search equipment.

It does not emit light because light cannot effectively travel through deep ocean water.

Statement 2 – Correct:
The term “black box” generally refers to two major flight-recording systems:

Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR): Records cockpit conversations, sounds, and radio transmissions.

Flight Data Recorder (FDR): Records technical parameters such as altitude, airspeed, heading, and acceleration.

Statement 3 – Correct:
The recorded information is stored in a highly protected component called the Crash-Survivable Memory Unit (CSMU).

It is designed to withstand extreme conditions, including high-impact forces, deep-sea pressure, and intense heat. Its protective structure commonly uses materials such as stainless steel or titanium, along with thermal insulation.

Therefore, Option B is correct.

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Q45 Option B

Question 45: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Incorrect:
Hydrogen produced from fossil fuels, particularly natural gas, through Steam Methane Reforming (SMR) with carbon emissions captured and stored through Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) is known as Blue Hydrogen, not Green Hydrogen.

Statement 2 – Correct:
Green Hydrogen is produced by splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen through electrolysis, using electricity generated from renewable energy sources such as solar and wind.

Statement 3 – Correct:
India’s National Green Hydrogen Mission has established specific targets for 2030. It aims to develop at least 5 MMT of annual green hydrogen production capacity.

The mission is also expected to contribute to the reduction of approximately 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions, along with reducing fossil-fuel imports and generating employment opportunities.

Therefore, Option B is correct.

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Q46 Option C

Question 46: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct:
The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) was established in 2020 as an autonomous, single-window agency under the Department of Space (DoS).

Its major role is to promote, authorize, and facilitate private-sector participation in India’s space sector. It also serves as an important interface between ISRO and private space companies.

Statement 2 – Correct:
In May 2024, Chennai-based space startup Agnikul Cosmos successfully launched Agnibaan SOrTeD, a suborbital rocket, from its private launch facility at Sriharikota.

The mission was notable for using Agnilet, a semi-cryogenic engine based on a single-piece, 3D-printed design.

Statement 3 – Incorrect:
Skyroot Aerospace develops its own launch vehicles, including the Vikram series, along with associated propulsion technologies. However, it does not develop the fuel or engines used in India’s GSLV.

The GSLV is an ISRO launch vehicle, and its propulsion systems, including liquid and cryogenic stages, are developed through ISRO’s own propulsion programmes.

Therefore, Option C is correct.

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Q47 Option B

Question 47: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Incorrect:
Drones generally communicate with ground control stations through Radio Frequency (RF) bands or Satellite Communication (SATCOM) systems for reliable and long-range communication.

The Terahertz (THz) band remains an emerging and largely experimental technology associated with future 6G communication systems. Due to high atmospheric attenuation and limited range, it is currently being explored more for short-range, high-speed communication, including potential drone-to-drone applications, rather than long-range command links.

Statement 2 – Correct:
A defining feature of a drone swarm is decentralized collective intelligence. Individual drones communicate with one another through networks such as ad-hoc mesh networks to coordinate movement, exchange sensor information, avoid collisions, and respond to changing conditions.

Statement 3 – Correct:
Electronic Warfare (EW) can be used as a countermeasure against drone swarms. GPS spoofing involves transmitting false navigation signals to deceive a drone’s navigation system.

This can potentially cause drones to deviate from their intended path, lose navigation accuracy, or perform unintended actions.

Therefore, Option B is correct.

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Q48 Option B

Question 48: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Incorrect:
The GenomeIndia Project is an independent pan-India initiative, launched in January 2020. It is not a component of the international Human Genome Project, which was conducted from 1990 to 2003.

GenomeIndia was inspired by advances associated with the Human Genome Project but focuses specifically on understanding the genetic diversity of the Indian population.

Statement 2 – Correct:
The project is funded and spearheaded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) under the Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India.

Statement 3 – Correct:
The primary objective of the project is to create a comprehensive catalogue of genetic diversity within the Indian population.

The project successfully sequenced 10,000 whole genomes representing 99 distinct ethnic, social, and linguistic groups across India to develop a reference resource for Indian genetic diversity.

Therefore, Option B is correct.

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Q49 Option C

Question 49: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct:
The National Quantum Mission (NQM) aims to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers using technologies such as superconducting and photonic platforms.

The mission targets the development of approximately 50–100 physical qubits within five years and scaling up towards 50–1000 physical qubits within eight years.

Statement 2 – Correct:
The implementation of the mission includes the establishment of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) at leading academic and national research institutions.

The four major areas are:

Quantum Computing – led by IISc Bengaluru

Quantum Communication – led by IIT Madras

Quantum Sensing & Metrology – led by IIT Bombay

Quantum Materials & Devices – led by IIT Delhi

Therefore, both statements are correct, making Option C correct.

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Q50 Option B

Question 50: Solution & Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 – Incorrect:
The Deep Ocean Mission (DOM) is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Government of India. It is not implemented by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.

Statement 2 – Correct:
Matsya-6000 is an indigenous manned submersible developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT).

It is designed to carry three aquanauts inside a titanium-alloy sphere and operate at depths of up to 6,000 metres. Its objectives include deep-sea exploration, marine biodiversity studies, and exploration of resources such as polymetallic nodules.

Statement 3 – Correct:
Samudrayaan is India’s first manned deep-sea exploration mission and forms a major sub-project under the broader Deep Ocean Mission.

Therefore, Option B is correct.

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Q51 Answer given in source

Question 51: Solution & Explanation

Option (c) Accountability

Explanation

Accountability in public administration refers to the responsibility of public officials to justify their decisions and actions and remain answerable for their conduct, particularly when public welfare is involved.

Mr. X demonstrated accountability by reporting the quality-related misconduct to the appropriate vigilance authority and taking corrective action despite pressure from vested interests. His actions reflected responsibility towards citizens and the proper use of public authority.

Esprit de corps refers to team spirit and organisational unity.

Equity refers to fairness and impartial treatment.

Delegation refers to assigning authority or responsibility to subordinates.

Therefore, accountability is the principle most clearly demonstrated.

Statement Analysis

(a) Esprit de corps: Incorrect. It relates to team spirit, cooperation and organisational morale, which is not the central issue in the case.

(b) Equity: Incorrect. Equity concerns fairness and impartiality in treatment, whereas the situation primarily involves responsibility and answerability.

(c) Accountability: Correct. Mr. X acted responsibly, reported the misconduct and took action to safeguard citizen welfare.

(d) Delegation: Incorrect. Delegation involves transferring authority or responsibility to another person and is not relevant to the situation.

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Q52 Answer given in source

Question 52: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

A sustainable conflict-resolution process requires recognition of cultural concerns, inclusive dialogue and evidence-based assessment.

Acknowledging the tribal community's cultural and religious concerns can help establish trust and create a foundation for meaningful mediation. A multi-stakeholder platform can bring different interests together and facilitate mutual understanding.

An independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) can provide objective information about the project's environmental and social consequences and support transparent decision-making.

Simply proceeding with the project while overriding the concerns of the tribal community would ignore legitimate rights and is likely to intensify the conflict rather than resolve it.

Statement Analysis

1. Acknowledging cultural concerns first: Correct. Recognising the significance of sacred land is important for building trust and creating conditions for meaningful dialogue.

2. Moving ahead without delay by overriding tribal concerns: Incorrect. This approach disregards legitimate cultural and tribal concerns and may further escalate tensions.

3. Multi-stakeholder dialogue platform: Correct. Bringing tribal leaders, experts and municipal representatives together can promote communication, mutual understanding and de-escalation.

4. Independent ESIA with transparent disclosure: Correct. An independent assessment provides an evidence-based foundation for informed and transparent decision-making.

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Q53 Answer given in source

Question 53: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (c) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

When allegations against a contractor are unproven, the appropriate approach is to protect public interest while avoiding premature public disclosure.

Recommending the removal of the contractor from the shortlist can help protect the integrity of the project. At the same time, limited disclosure to an appropriate oversight committee allows the matter to be examined through institutional mechanisms while maintaining confidentiality.

Immediate public disclosure of unverified allegations could be premature and may create legal and reputational concerns.

Statement Analysis

1. Immediately disclose the information to the public: Incorrect. Since the allegations have not been legally established, immediate public disclosure could be premature and potentially irresponsible.

2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist: Correct. This is a precautionary measure that can protect the integrity of the project through appropriate institutional procedures.

3. Propose limited disclosure to an oversight committee: Correct. This approach balances transparency and accountability with confidentiality and due process.

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Q54 Answer given in source

Question 54: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (d) The view of only Y is correct

Explanation

Article 13 provides a broad constitutional meaning of the term “law.” Under Article 13(3), it includes an Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having the force of law in the territory of India.

Therefore, Y is correct in stating that custom or usage having the force of law is included within the meaning of “law” under Article 13. X's interpretation is incomplete because it excludes custom or usage.

Statement Analysis

(a) Incorrect. X is incorrect because Article 13 expressly includes custom or usage having the force of law.

(b) Incorrect. Y's interpretation is correct because custom or usage is specifically mentioned in Article 13(3).

(c) Incorrect. The two views cannot both be correct because X rejects the inclusion of custom or usage.

(d) Correct. Only Y's view is correct regarding the inclusion of custom or usage within the meaning of “law” under Article 13.

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Q55 Answer given in source

Question 55: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (b) There is no correct statement.

Explanation

All three statements are incorrect because the Constitution contains specific provisions dealing with each of these matters.

Article 393 states that the Constitution may be called the “Constitution of India.”

Article 395 repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935.

Article 394 specifies 26 January 1950 as the date of commencement for the provisions referred to therein.

Therefore, none of the three statements is correct.

Statement Analysis

1. Incorrect. Article 393 specifies the name “Constitution of India.”

2. Incorrect. Article 395 expressly provides for the repeal of the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935.

3. Incorrect. Article 394 mentions 26 January 1950 as the date of commencement of the relevant provisions.

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Q56 Answer given in source

Question 56: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (b) 2 only

Explanation

The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act was enacted in 2016, not 2018. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) focuses on universal accessibility through three major areas: the built environment, transportation systems, and information and communication technology. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) functions under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Statement Analysis

1. Incorrect. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act was enacted in 2016, not 2018. Although the Act contains provisions relating to reservation, accessibility and non-discrimination, the year mentioned makes the statement incorrect.

2. Correct. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on accessibility in the built environment, transportation systems and ICT.

3. Incorrect. NDFDC functions under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

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Q57 Answer given in source

Question 57: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

Explanation

The administration of Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram is governed by the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth Schedule. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

Certain members of Scheduled Tribes residing in specified areas are eligible for income-tax exemption on specified incomes under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act. Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.

The Constitution also provides reservation in Panchayats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, including reservation for women belonging to these categories. Thus, Statement 3 is correct.

Statement Analysis

1. Incorrect. Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are covered by the Sixth Schedule, whereas the Fifth Schedule deals with Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in other specified states.

2. Correct. Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act provides exemptions for members of Scheduled Tribes in specified areas and in respect of specified incomes.

3. Correct. Article 243D provides for reservation of seats for SCs and STs in Panchayats and also provides reservation for women within the reserved categories.

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Q58 Answer given in source

Question 58: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (c) Only one statement is correct

Explanation

Parliamentary questions are an important mechanism through which Members of Parliament obtain information and hold the executive accountable.

A starred question requires an oral answer, whereas an unstarred question receives a written answer. Supplementary questions can be asked only in relation to questions answered orally.

Therefore, Statement 3 alone is correct.

Statement Analysis

1. Incorrect. An unstarred question is one for which the Member seeks a written answer, not an oral answer.

2. Incorrect. A starred question requires an oral answer in the House.

3. Correct. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question because its answer is provided in writing.

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Q59 Answer given in source

Question 59: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (d) There is no correct statement.

Explanation

The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes consists of 30 members—20 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha.

The Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Ministers are not eligible to be members of the Committee, and the members hold office for one year, not two years.

Therefore, all four statements are incorrect.

Statement Analysis

1. Incorrect. The Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

2. Incorrect. The composition is 20 members from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha, not the reverse.

3. Incorrect. No Minister is eligible to be a member of this Committee; there is no such exception for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment.

4. Incorrect. Members hold office for one year, not two years.

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Q60 Answer given in source

Question 60: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (b) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Mission Sudarshan Chakra is focused on strengthening India's integrated air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.

It is intended to enable rapid, precise and effective defence responses while strengthening India's strategic autonomy.

However, the mission is a military and defence initiative. It is not intended to create a nationwide security shield covering all public places by 2035. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Statement Analysis

1. Correct. Enhancing air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities forms part of the mission's objectives.

2. Correct. The mission seeks to strengthen rapid and precise defence responses and contribute to India's strategic autonomy.

3. Incorrect. The mission does not aim to establish a nationwide security shield covering all public places by 2035.

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Q61 Answer given in source

Question 61: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (d) 3 only

Explanation

Maitri Setu, constructed over the Feni River, connects Sabroom in Tripura, India, with Ramgarh in Bangladesh. Statement 1 reverses these locations.

The Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Nepal, linking Uttarakhand with Nepal, and therefore Statement 2 is incorrect.

The Mechi Bridge connects Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Statement Analysis

1. Incorrect. Sabroom is located in Tripura, India, while Ramgarh is in Bangladesh.

2. Incorrect. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India and Nepal, not India and Myanmar.

3. Correct. The Mechi Bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.

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Q62 Answer given in source

Question 62: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (c) 1 only

Explanation

A Zero FIR allows a complaint relating to a cognizable offence to be registered at a police station irrespective of territorial jurisdiction. It can subsequently be transferred to the police station having jurisdiction over the offence.

The preliminary-enquiry provision under the BNSS applies in specified circumstances and does not mean that the officer handling the Zero FIR can undertake such an enquiry in the manner stated in Statement 2.

Electronic submission of information is available as a mode of communication under the law, but it is not an obligatory requirement for filing a Zero FIR.

Statement Analysis

1. Correct. A Zero FIR can be registered at a police station even when the offence occurred outside its territorial jurisdiction, subject to the applicable legal requirements.

2. Incorrect. The statement incorrectly describes the authority of the officer at the station where the Zero FIR is lodged to initiate a preliminary enquiry.

3. Incorrect. Providing information electronically is not mandatory for the informant under the Zero FIR mechanism.

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Q63 Answer given in source

Question 63: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (a) 1

Explanation

The Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) coordinates economic intelligence among various agencies, but it functions under the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence, Row 1 is incorrect.

The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) investigates complex corporate frauds, but it functions under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not the Ministry of Finance. Hence, Row 2 is incorrect.

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) functions under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions through the Department of Personnel and Training. Its stated functions include preserving values in public life and protecting the health of the national economy. Therefore, Row 3 is correctly matched.

Statement Analysis

1. Incorrect. The function is broadly appropriate, but CEIB comes under the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.

2. Incorrect. SFIO investigates complex corporate frauds, but it comes under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

3. Correct. Both the stated function and controlling ministry of the CBI are correctly matched.

Therefore, only one row is correctly matched.

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Q64 Answer given in source

Question 64: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (d) 3, 4.and5

Explanation

India has ratified the Employment Policy Convention (ILO C122) in 1998.

India has ratified the Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (ILO C105) in 2000.

India has NOT ratified the International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families (1990). Most destination countries for migrants have not ratified this convention.

India has NOT ratified the Geneva Convention IV (Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War). India ratified the first three Geneva Conventions but not the Fourth. India has also NOT ratified the Convention on Reduction of Statelessness (1961).

Statement Analysis

1. Employment Policy Convention: Ratified by India in 1998. Hence not part of the answer.

2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention: Ratified by India in 2000. Hence not part of the answer.

3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families: Not ratified by India. Correct inclusion.

4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War: Not ratified by India.

Correct inclusion.

e 5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness: Not ratified by India. Correct inclusion.

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Q65 Answer given in source

Question 65: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (d) 3 only

Explanation

The Summit's intellectual framework used the three Sutras: People, Planet and Prosperity, rather than People, Planning and Progress. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.

Although the Preamble refers to Democratising AI Resources, the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI is a voluntary/non-binding framework, not a binding framework. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), including Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI. Therefore, Statement 3 is correct.

Statement Analysis

1. Incorrect. The three Sutras were People, Planet and Prosperity.

2. Incorrect. The Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI is voluntary and non-binding; it is not a binding framework.

3. Correct. The New Delhi Declaration was structured around seven Chakras, including the three themes mentioned in the statement.

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Q66 Answer given in source

Question 66: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (a) (a) 1 and 2

Explanation

India's Act East Policy places significant emphasis on connectivity with Southeast Asia through road, rail and maritime routes.

Myanmar serves as an important geographical link between India and the ASEAN region. Therefore, projects connecting India with Myanmar and further with other ASEAN countries form part of this connectivity framework.

The Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line connects India with Bangladesh, which is not an ASEAN member.

Statement Analysis

1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project: Correct. It connects India with Myanmar through a multimodal route involving Sittwe and onward connectivity to Mizoram.

2. IMT Trilateral Highway: Correct. It connects India, Myanmar and Thailand, linking India with two ASEAN member countries.

3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line: Incorrect. It connects India with Bangladesh, which is not an ASEAN member.

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Q67 Answer given in source

Question 67: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

Explanation

India undertakes a range of development-assistance projects in neighbouring countries under its Neighbourhood First Policy.

The Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project is located in Bhutan and was developed with Indian assistance. The Restoration of Stor Palace is associated with Afghanistan, while the District Hospital at Dickoya is located in Sri Lanka. The Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies is associated with Maldives.

Statement Analysis

A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project — Bhutan (3): Correct. It is a major Indo-Bhutan hydropower cooperation project.

B. Restoration of Stor Palace — Afghanistan (2): Correct. India supported the restoration of the historic palace in Afghanistan.

C. District Hospital at Dickoya — Sri Lanka (4): Correct. The hospital was developed with Indian assistance in Sri Lanka.

D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies — Maldives (1): Correct. The institute was established with Indian assistance for capacity building in law enforcement.

Therefore, the correct matching is A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1.

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Q68 Answer given in source

Question 68: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (a) Only Su-30 MKI and T-90 are manufactured domestically.

Explanation

India has actively focused on domestic defense manufacturing through strategic technology transfer agreements with partner nations, particularly Russia.

Public sector undertakings such as Hindustan Aeronautics Limited and various Ordnance Factories play a critical role in building advanced military hardware locally.

While many fighter jets and battle tanks are produced natively, certain strategic assets like nuclear powered attack submarines involve highly classified technology and have been leased rather than fully manufactured domestically.

Statement Analysis

Statement 1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets: Correct. These twin jet multirole air superiority fighters are built under license in India by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited.

Statement 2. T-90 MK-IIl Tanks: Correct. The T-90 main battle tanks, famously known as Bhishma, are manufactured domestically at the Heavy Vehicles Factory in Avadi under a licensed production agreement with Russia.

Statement 3. Akula Class Submarine: Incorrect. The Akula class nuclear powered submarines are not built in India. They have been leased directly from the Russian Navy, famously operated in India as INS Chakra.

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Q69 Answer given in source

Question 69: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (c) Statements 2 and 3 only are correct

Explanation

The Colombo Process is a Regional Consultative Process dealing with overseas employment and labour migration. It is consultative and non-binding in nature.

The Abu Dhabi Dialogue is a voluntary and non-binding consultative process involving Asian labour-origin and labour-destination countries, with a focus on contractual labour mobility.

The Global Forum on Migration and Development (GFMD) was proposed by former UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan. It is an informal, voluntary and state-led forum whose outcomes are non-binding.

Statement Analysis

1. Incorrect. The Colombo Process is a non-binding consultative forum. Its decisions and recommendations are not legally binding on participating states.

2. Correct. The Abu Dhabi Dialogue is a voluntary, non-binding process facilitating cooperation between labour-origin and labour-destination countries.

3. Correct. GFMD is voluntary and produces non-binding outcomes. It originated from a proposal made by former UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan.

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Q70 Answer given in source

Question 70: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (a) Only one organisation has won it twice.

Explanation

Among the organisations listed, the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) has received the Nobel Peace Prize twice.

The other three organisations listed have each received the Nobel Peace Prize once. Therefore, only one organisation among the given options has been awarded the prize twice.

Statement Analysis

1. World Food Programme: Incorrect. The WFP received the Nobel Peace Prize once, in 2020, for its efforts to combat hunger and prevent the use of hunger as a weapon of war.

2. United Nations Children's Fund: Incorrect. UNICEF received the Nobel Peace Prize once, in 1965, for its contribution to promoting child welfare.

3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees: Correct. UNHCR received the Nobel Peace Prize twice, in 1954 and 1981, for its work on behalf of refugees.

4. International Labour Organisation: Incorrect. The ILO received the Nobel Peace Prize once, in 1969, in recognition of its contribution to international cooperation and labour rights.

Therefore, only one organisation among the four has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize twice.

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Q71 Answer given in source

Question 71: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (b) 3142

Explanation

The four UN peacekeeping missions correspond to the following periods:

UNMIL operated in Liberia from 2003 to 2018.

MINURCAT operated in the Central African Republic and Chad from 2007 to 2010.

MINUSTAH operated in Haiti from 2004 to 2017.

UNMISET operated in East Timor from 2002 to 2005.

Thus, the correct sequence is 3-1-4-2.

Statement Analysis

A. UNMIL — 3 (2003-2018): Correct. UNMIL was established in Liberia in 2003 and concluded its mandate in 2018.

B. MINURCAT — 1 (2007-2010): Correct. MINURCAT was established in 2007 and operated until 2010.

C. MINUSTAH — 4 (2004-2017): Correct. The mission was established in Haiti in 2004 and ended in 2017.

D. UNMISET — 2 (2002-2005): Correct. UNMISET was established in East Timor in 2002 and completed its mandate in 2005.

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Q72 Answer given in source

Question 72: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (c) Matches are A4, B2, C1, and D3.

Explanation

BIMSTEC stands for the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multisectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation. It promotes regional cooperation among its member states through specialised institutions and centres.

The relevant locations are:

BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory — Thimphu

BIMSTEC Energy Centre — Bengaluru

BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate — NOIDA

BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility — Colombo

Therefore, the correct matching is A-4, B-2, C-1 and D-3.

Statement Analysis

A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory — 4 (Thimphu): Correct. It is located in Bhutan and focuses on cultural cooperation.

B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre — 2 (Bengaluru): Correct. It is located in India and supports regional cooperation in the energy sector.

C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate — 1 (NOIDA): Correct. The centre is located in India and focuses on weather and climate-related cooperation.

D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility — 3 (Colombo): Correct. It is located in Sri Lanka and supports technology-related cooperation among member states.

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Q73 Answer given in source

Question 73: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (d) 33 Corps - Srinagar

Explanation

The 33 Corps, also known as the Trishul Corps, is headquartered at Sukna near Siliguri, West Bengal, and not in Srinagar.

The other three pairs are correctly matched:

3 Corps — Dimapur

4 Corps — Tezpur

14 Corps — Leh

The Army formation headquartered in Srinagar is 15 Corps, also known as the Chinar Corps.

Statement Analysis

(a) 3 Corps — Dimapur: Correct. 3 Corps is headquartered at Dimapur.

(b) 4 Corps — Tezpur: Correct. 4 Corps is headquartered at Tezpur, Assam.

(c) 14 Corps — Leh: Correct. 14 Corps, also known as the Fire and Fury Corps, is headquartered at Leh.

(d) 33 Corps — Srinagar: Incorrect. 33 Corps is headquartered at Sukna, near Siliguri, while the Srinagar-based formation is 15 Corps.

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Q74 Answer given in source

Question 74: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (b) 2 only

Explanation

The Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of Panchayati Raj. Its primary focus is strengthening the institutional and governance capacities of Panchayati Raj Institutions.

The revamped RGSA was approved for the period aligned with the Fifteenth Finance Commission cycle, from 1 April 2022 to 31 March 2026.

The funding pattern is not 100% for all States and Union Territories. The Centre provides different shares depending on the category of the State or Union Territory.

Statement Analysis

1. Incorrect. The implementation period of the revamped RGSA is 1 April 2022 to 31 March 2026, not from 1 April 2021.

2. Correct. The scheme aims to strengthen the governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions so that they can contribute effectively to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals through local action.

3. Incorrect. Central funding is not 100% for all States and Union Territories. The funding pattern is 60:40 for general States, 90:10 for North-Eastern and Hilly States, and 100% for Union Territories.

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Q75 Answer given in source

Question 75: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (c) 2 and 3

Explanation

The European Union (EU) currently consists of 27 member states.

Among the countries listed:

Poland is an EU member and joined the Union in 2004.

Germany is one of the founding members of the European integration process.

Belarus is not an EU member.

Switzerland is also not an EU member, although it maintains extensive bilateral relations with the EU.

Therefore, only Poland and Germany are EU members.

Statement Analysis

1. Belarus: Incorrect. Belarus is not a member of the European Union.

2. Poland: Correct. Poland has been an EU member since 2004.

3. Germany: Correct. Germany is a founding member of the European integration framework.

4. Switzerland: Incorrect. Switzerland is not an EU member and maintains relations with the Union through bilateral agreements.

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Q76 Answer given in source

Question 76: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (c) 4213

Explanation

INTERPOL uses different colour-coded notices for specific law-enforcement purposes.

The relevant matches are:

Silver Notice — 4: Identify and trace criminal assets.

Blue Notice — 2: Collect additional information about a person's identity, location or activities.

Black Notice — 1: Seek information about unidentified bodies.

Green Notice — 3: Provide warnings about a person's criminal activities where they may pose a threat to public safety.

Thus, the correct sequence is 4-2-1-3.

Statement Analysis

A. Silver Notice — 4: Correct. It is used to identify and trace criminal assets.

B. Blue Notice — 2: Correct. It facilitates the collection of additional information about a person's identity, location or activities in connection with a criminal investigation.

C. Black Notice — 1: Correct. It seeks information concerning unidentified bodies.

D. Green Notice — 3: Correct. It provides warnings about individuals whose criminal activities may pose a threat to public safety.

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Q77 Answer given in source

Question 77: Solution & Explanation

(a) 1,2 and3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Answer

Option (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

NIRANTAR is an integrated platform conceptualised under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to coordinate and strengthen the work of its various institutions.

The platform organises its activities into different verticals, each assigned to an appropriate lead institution. This structure is intended to promote collaborative research, improve institutional coordination and strengthen capacity in environmental and natural-resource management.

Statement Analysis

1. Correct. The Ecosystem Survey and Analysis vertical is led by the Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.

2. Incorrect. The Research and Management of Ecosystem Service vertical is led by the Wildlife Institute of India, Dehradun, and not by the Central Zoo Authority.

3. Correct. The Capacity Development Support vertical is led by the Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.

Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 only are correct.

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Q78 Answer given in source

Question 78: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (b) Statements 1 and 4 are not correct

Explanation

The visit focused on strengthening bilateral cooperation between India and Germany in areas including economic relations, defence, technology, sports and the Indo-Pacific.

Among the listed outcomes, the claimed MoU between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg was not the agreement concluded during the visit. The relevant cooperation was with Charité University.

Similarly, there was no official outcome concerning the opening of a German Honorary Consul in Lucknow.

The agreements concerning youth hockey development and an Indo-Pacific dialogue mechanism were among the stated outcomes.

Statement Analysis

1. Incorrect. The stated MoU with the University of Hamburg was not signed during the visit; the relevant agreement was with Charité University.

2. Correct. India and Germany agreed to cooperate on youth hockey development, strengthening sporting relations between the two countries.

3. Correct. The two countries agreed to establish a bilateral dialogue mechanism focusing on the Indo-Pacific.

4. Incorrect. No official announcement was made regarding the opening of a German Honorary Consul in Lucknow.

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Q79 Answer given in source

Question 79: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (c) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation

DHRUV64 is an indigenous microprocessor developed by the SHAKTI processor team at IIT Madras under the Digital India RISC-V (DIR-V) Programme.

The DIR-V initiative seeks to develop an indigenous ecosystem for processor design and strengthen India's capabilities in semiconductor and microprocessor technology.

DHRUV64 is a 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core processor and represents a significant step in the development of indigenous processor technology.

Statement Analysis

1. Correct. DHRUV64 is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V initiative, which seeks to create a domestic ecosystem for microprocessor development.

2. Correct. It is India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

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Q80 Answer given in source

Question 80: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) introduced IS 19445:2025 as a national standard for testing and assessing bomb disposal systems.

The standard is intended to promote standardisation and interoperability among equipment used by different agencies involved in bomb disposal and counter-IED operations.

The claim regarding its development in collaboration with the Russian institute mentioned in Statement 3 is not established. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Statement Analysis

1. Correct. The national standard for testing and assessment of bomb disposal systems is IS 19445:2025.

2. Correct. Standardisation can improve interoperability and compatibility of equipment used by different agencies.

3. Incorrect. The stated collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia is not an established feature of the development of this standard.

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Q81 Answer given in source

Question 81: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (c) John Clarke

Explanation

The 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to John Clarke (among others) for contributions related to quantum sensing and superconducting devices.

John Clarke was born in the United Kingdom and served as a professor at the University of California, Berkeley, an American university.

Michel H. Devoret, while also associated with quantum physics, was born in France. Joel Mokyr is an economic historian and Richard Robson is a chemist, neither of whom received the 2025 Nobel Prize.

Statement Analysis

a. Michel H. Devoret: Incorrect. He was born in France, not the UK.

b. Richard Robson: Incorrect. He is not a 2025 Nobel Prize laureate.

c. John Clarke: Correct. Born in the UK, professor at UC Berkeley, and awarded the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics.

e = d.Joel Mokyr: Incorrect. He is an economic historian and was not awarded the 2025 Nobel Prize.

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Q82 Answer given in source

Question 82: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The four Grand Slam tournaments are the Australian Open, Roland Garros, Wimbledon and the US Open.

The tournaments operate under a common framework of cooperation and governance, while individual events retain their own organisational structures and regulations.

The Grand Slam rules also provide for eligibility of players who meet the applicable age and ranking requirements. However, there is no stated overall limit on the number of Wild Cards that an individual player may receive across Grand Slam events.

Statement Analysis

1. Correct. The Grand Slam tournaments have a shared governance framework through the Grand Slam Board, facilitating cooperation among the four major tournaments.

2. Correct. Players meeting the applicable eligibility requirements and being 14 years of age or older can enter Grand Slam competitions subject to the relevant rules.

3. Incorrect. There is no general limitation on the number of Wild Cards a player may receive to compete in Grand Slam tournaments.

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Q83 Answer given in source

Question 83: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. - Madhya Pradesh

Explanation

India's semiconductor programme includes several approved semiconductor fabrication and assembly/testing projects across different States.

CG Power and Industrial Solutions, in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics, has its semiconductor facility in Sanand, Gujarat.

Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. is associated with Jagiroad, Assam.

SicSem Pvt. Ltd. is associated with a semiconductor facility in Odisha.

The location given for the HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. is not Madhya Pradesh.

Hence, Statement (c) is the incorrectly matched pair.

Statement Analysis

(a) Correctly matched. The CG Power facility is located in Gujarat.

(b) Correctly matched. Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. is located in Assam.

(c) Incorrectly matched. The HCL-Foxconn joint venture is not correctly associated with Madhya Pradesh.

(d) Correctly matched. SicSem Pvt. Ltd. is associated with Odisha.

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Q84 Answer given in source

Question 84: Answer

Option (a) Only Statement 1 is correct

(3 Explanation

The Bharat Forecast System is an indigenous high resolution weather model designed to enhance localized weather predictions in India.

lt focuses on delivering granular meteorological data to support grassroots agriculture, disaster management, and local governance.

The system was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), an institute operating under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).

Statement Analysis

Statement 1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level: Correct. The model is specifically designed to provide highly localized weather forecasts at the cluster of Panchayats level to assist farmers and grassroots administrators.

Statement 2. It was developed by IIT Delhi: Incorrect. The system was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), an institute operating under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).

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Q85 Answer given in source

Question 85: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Boong is an Indian film directed by Lakshmipriya Devi. It received the BAFTA Award in the Children's and Family Film category, marking an important achievement for Indian cinema.

The film is rooted in the cultural and social context of Manipur and Northeast India.

Accordingly, all three statements are correct.

Statement Analysis

1. Correct. Boong won the BAFTA Award in the Children's and Family Film category.

2. Correct. The film was directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.

3. Correct. Boong became the first Indian film to win a BAFTA Award in this category.

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Q86 Answer given in source

Question 86: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (c) Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct

Explanation

Blockchain is a distributed ledger technology in which records are maintained across multiple nodes of a network.

Cryptographic hashing and consensus mechanisms provide a high degree of security, transparency and immutability. Once a transaction has been accepted and recorded, altering it becomes extremely difficult because any change would affect the cryptographic chain.

However, a consortium blockchain is not simply a combination of public and private blockchains. It is a permissioned blockchain governed by a group of organisations.

Statement Analysis

1. Correct. Blockchain records can be made visible to authorised or relevant participants while cryptographic mechanisms make unauthorised alteration extremely difficult.

2. Correct. Blockchain operates as a distributed ledger in which data is replicated across multiple participating computers or nodes and synchronised through the network.

3. Incorrect. A consortium blockchain is a permissioned blockchain controlled by a group of organisations. A combination of public and private blockchain characteristics is generally described as a hybrid blockchain.

4. Correct. Cryptographic hashing and consensus mechanisms make unauthorised alteration or deletion of accepted records extremely difficult and detectable.

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Q87 Answer given in source

Question 87: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (a) Dropshipping Model

Explanation

Dropshipping is an e-commerce fulfilment model in which the seller does not maintain physical inventory.

When a customer places an order, the seller forwards the order and shipping details to a third-party supplier, who directly dispatches the product to the customer.

The seller generally controls the retail price and customer relationship while avoiding the need to maintain warehouses or manage physical inventory.

Statement Analysis

(a) Dropshipping Model: Correct. It exactly describes a model where the seller markets and sells the product while a third-party supplier handles inventory and direct shipment.

(b) Affiliate Revenue Model: Incorrect. An affiliate earns a commission for referring customers to another seller and does not normally control the seller's pricing or fulfil the order.

(c) Transaction Fee Revenue Model: Incorrect. Under this model, a platform earns a fee for facilitating transactions rather than selling products through a supplier.

(d) Agency Revenue Model: Incorrect. An agency provides services or represents clients in return for fees and does not describe this inventory-free product fulfilment model.

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Q88 Answer given in source

Question 88: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (c) Access, Usage, and Quality

Explanation

The Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India in 2021 to measure the extent of financial inclusion across the country.

The index ranges from 0 to 100, with a higher value indicating a greater level of financial inclusion.

It is based on three broad parameters:

Access — 35%

Usage — 45%

Quality — 20%

Therefore, the correct answer is Access, Usage and Quality.

Statement Analysis

(a) Incorrect. Credit access, insurance depth and pension coverage are not the three broad parameters of the RBI's FI-Index.

(b) Incorrect. GDP contribution is not one of the three parameters of the FI-Index.

(c) Correct. Access, Usage and Quality are the three broad parameters of the RBI's FI-Index.

(d) Incorrect. Affordability and transparency are not the three principal sub-indices of the FI-Index.

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Q89 Answer given in source

Question 89: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (c) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks

Explanation

The Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative aimed at creating an open and interoperable digital commerce ecosystem.

Rather than allowing commerce to remain restricted to individual platforms, ONDC seeks to enable buyers and sellers operating on different network participants to interact with one another.

The initiative therefore seeks to promote competition, widen participation and reduce dependence on platform-centric e-commerce models.

Statement Analysis

(a) Incorrect. ONDC is not designed to establish government control over digital commerce transactions.

(b) Incorrect. ONDC does not seek to replace private e-commerce companies. Instead, it provides an open network in which different participants can operate.

(c) Correct. Enabling interoperability across networks is a key objective of ONDC and can help reduce platform concentration.

(d) Incorrect. ONDC is concerned with digital commerce interoperability and does not mandate UPI as the payment method for all online transactions.

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Q90 Answer given in source

Question 90: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (d) Digital Rupee is a liability of the RBI.

Explanation

Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a payment system that facilitates interbank peer to peer and person to merchant transactions.

Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) or Digital Rupee is a legal tender issued by a central bank in a digital form.

While UPI acts as an interface to transfer money already sitting in a bank account, the Digital Rupee is currency itself and represents a direct claim on the Reserve Bank of India.

Statement Analysis

Option A. UPI is a real time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency: Correct.

UPI is a payment interface for bank transfers, whereas the Digital Rupee is the digital equivalent of sovereign physical cash.

Option B. In case of UPI settlement happens instantly but in case of Digital Rupee there is no settlement as wallet balance gets transferred: Correct. UPI involves bank settlements where money is debited and credited. The Digital Rupee moves from wallet to wallet without requiring interbank settlement.

Option C. UPI transactions are recorded by banks but Digital Rupee transactions are not captured in bank statements: Correct. UPI transactions use bank accounts and appear on bank statements. Digital Rupee transactions happen between digital wallets and do not appear on bank statements.

Option D. In both the cases the liability lies with the users and their respective banks: Incorrect. In UPI, the liability lies with the commercial banks holding the deposits. However, the Digital Rupee is a direct liability of the Reserve Bank of India, not the commercial banks.

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Q91 Answer given in source

Question 91: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Real-World Asset (RWA) tokenization refers to the conversion of ownership rights in physical or traditional financial assets, such as real estate, commodities, and bonds, into digital tokens using blockchain technology.

Blockchain-based tokenization enables 24×7 access and trading, unlike traditional financial markets that operate during fixed hours. This can promote financial inclusion by reducing barriers to participation.

Tokenization also enables fractional ownership, allowing individuals to invest smaller amounts in high-value assets such as commercial real estate or fine art. This can expand access to previously exclusive investment opportunities.

Statement Analysis

1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology:
Correct. This represents the standard concept of RWA tokenization, where ownership or economic rights associated with real-world assets are represented through digital tokens on a blockchain.

2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24×7 access, promoting financial inclusion:
Correct. Blockchain-based systems can operate continuously, while fractional ownership can reduce the minimum investment required to access certain assets.

3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India:
Correct. Fractional ownership can make high-value asset classes more accessible to individual investors by allowing investment in smaller portions of an asset.

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Q92 Answer given in source

Question 92: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (c) Sustainability Bond

Explanation

According to the International Capital Market Association (ICMA), a Sustainability Bond is a bond whose proceeds are exclusively used to finance or refinance a combination of green and social projects.

Green Bonds are used to finance environmental or climate-related projects, whereas Social Bonds finance projects with social benefits, such as affordable housing or healthcare.

Sovereign Bonds are debt instruments issued by governments and are not specifically defined by the environmental or social use of their proceeds.

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Q93 Answer given in source

Question 93: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (b) 2 only

Explanation

M1xchange, operated by Mynd Solutions, is a Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform approved by the Reserve Bank of India.

TReDS platforms facilitate the financing of MSMEs' trade receivables through the discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange. They do not provide direct collateral-based loans or function as credit rating agencies.

M1xchange enables MSMEs to obtain financing against their receivables without requiring traditional collateral, as the financing is linked to the creditworthiness of the buyer, such as large corporates or government entities.

Statement Analysis

1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs:
Incorrect. M1xchange is a TReDS platform that facilitates the discounting of trade receivables rather than providing collateral-based loans.

2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs:
Correct. Facilitating the financing of trade receivables through invoice and Bill of Exchange discounting is the core function of TReDS platforms such as M1xchange.

3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs:
Incorrect. M1xchange is a trade receivables discounting platform, not a credit rating agency. Credit rating agencies such as CRISIL and ICRA perform credit-rating functions.

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Q94 Answer given in source

Question 94: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment

Explanation

The Crowding Out Effect occurs when increased government spending or borrowing raises interest rates, thereby reducing private-sector investment.

When the government borrows heavily from financial markets to finance its fiscal deficit, it competes with private borrowers for available funds. This increased demand for funds can push up interest rates.

Higher interest rates increase the cost of borrowing for private firms, which may reduce private investment. Thus, the expansionary impact of government spending may be partially or fully offset.

Statement Analysis

(a) Private investment increases due to increased Government spending:
Incorrect. This describes a crowding-in effect, which is the opposite of crowding out.

(b) Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment:
Correct. This is the standard description of the crowding-out effect.

(c) Increase in taxes leads to increased private sector investment:
Incorrect. An increase in taxes generally affects disposable income and does not represent the crowding-out mechanism.

(d) Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand:
Incorrect. Government spending directly affects aggregate demand. The crowding-out effect concerns its potential impact on private investment through higher interest rates.

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Q95 Answer given in source

Question 95: Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct? 1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilize Rare Earth Elements (REEs). 2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India. 3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector. 4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1,3 and 4

(d) 1,2and4

Answer

Option (a) Only statements 1 and 3 are correct

Explanation

Rare Earth Elements and critical minerals are important for advanced technologies, defence systems, and renewable-energy applications.

The global supply chains of these minerals are highly concentrated, creating economic and strategic vulnerabilities. Consequently, countries are taking measures to strengthen domestic exploration, diversify sources, and secure international supplies.

India has also introduced specific policies and initiatives to strengthen its critical-mineral ecosystem and reduce dependence on external sources.

Statement Analysis

1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilize Rare Earth Elements (REEs):
Correct. REEs are important for producing specialised components such as high-performance magnets, sensors, and other technologies used in advanced technological applications.

2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India:
Incorrect. China has the largest share of global REE mining, but India is not the second-largest producer. Other countries, including the United States and Myanmar, have higher production levels.

3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector:
Correct. The mission aims to strengthen domestic exploration, secure international supplies, and reduce import dependence for strategically important minerals.

4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements:
Incorrect. Rare Earth Elements comprise 17 metallic elements—the 15 lanthanides along with scandium and yttrium.

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Q96 Answer given in source

Question 96: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (c) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation

Aviation insurance provides protection against risks associated with aircraft operations, including physical damage to aircraft and various liabilities.

The Montreal Convention, 1999 is a multilateral treaty that establishes common rules for international carriage by air, with significant provisions relating to passenger protection and carrier liability.

Under the Convention, airlines are subject to a strict liability framework up to a specified limit of Special Drawing Rights (SDR), enabling initial compensation to be provided without requiring the family to establish negligence.

Statement Analysis

1. ‘Aviation Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment:
Correct. Aviation Hull Insurance protects the physical aircraft and its components against damage or loss, including while the aircraft is in flight, on the ground, or taxiing.

2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault:
Correct. The Convention establishes a strict-liability framework up to a specified compensation limit, allowing basic compensation to be provided without requiring the claimant to prove fault.

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Q97 Answer given in source

Question 97: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Crowdfunding involves raising relatively small amounts of capital from a large number of individuals, generally through internet-based platforms or social networking sites, for a specific project, business venture, or cause.

For SMEs, crowdfunding can provide an alternative source of finance and may reduce some of the procedural and regulatory hurdles associated with traditional fundraising methods.

SEBI has also examined crowdfunding as a mechanism through which startups and SMEs can raise funds.

Statement Analysis

1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project:
Correct. This accurately describes the basic mechanism of crowdfunding, where funds are collected from multiple contributors through online platforms.

2. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures:
Correct. Crowdfunding can provide SMEs with comparatively easier access to capital by reducing some of the conventional fundraising procedures and barriers.

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Q98 Answer given in source

Question 98: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (d) 2 and 4

Explanation

The R.N. Malhotra Committee was constituted by the Government of India to recommend reforms in the insurance sector. IRDAI was established later, partly as a result of the committee's recommendations. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrectly matched.

The L.C. Gupta Committee was constituted by SEBI in 1996 to develop a regulatory framework for derivatives trading in India. Therefore, Statement 2 is correctly matched.

The Urjit R. Patel Committee was constituted by the RBI to review and strengthen the monetary policy framework, particularly in relation to inflation targeting. It was not constituted to reform bank lending to the housing sector. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.

The Y.H. Malegam Committee was constituted by the RBI to examine issues relating to the microfinance sector and recommend appropriate regulatory measures. Therefore, Statement 4 is correctly matched.

Statement Analysis

1. R.N. Malhotra Committee — Insurance sector reforms — IRDAI:
Incorrect. The committee was constituted by the Government of India, not IRDAI. IRDAI was established later following the recommendations of the committee.

2. L.C. Gupta Committee — Roadmap for derivatives trading — SEBI:
Correct. SEBI constituted the L.C. Gupta Committee to develop a framework for derivatives trading in India.

3. Urjit R. Patel Committee — Reforming bank lending to the Housing sector — RBI:
Incorrect. The committee was constituted by the RBI to review and strengthen the monetary policy framework, including inflation targeting.

4. Y.H. Malegam Committee — Reforms in the Microfinance sector — RBI:
Correct. The RBI constituted the committee to examine issues in the microfinance sector and suggest appropriate regulatory measures.

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Q99 Answer given in source

Question 99: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (a) 1 and 4

Explanation

NBFCs are financial institutions that provide several banking-like financial services but do not hold a full banking licence. They are regulated by the RBI under the RBI Act, 1934, subject to applicable regulatory provisions and exemptions.

NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits such as savings or current account deposits. Certain categories may accept permitted time or term deposits.

Not all NBFCs are required to be registered with the RBI because certain categories are regulated by other authorities or are exempt from RBI registration requirements.

NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system in the manner specified for banks and cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves. Further, DICGC deposit insurance is not available for deposits with NBFCs.

Statement Analysis

1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits:
Correct. NBFCs are not permitted to accept demand deposits, which distinguishes them from commercial banks.

2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI:
Incorrect. Certain categories of financial entities are regulated by other authorities or are exempt from RBI registration requirements.

3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheques drawn on itself:
Incorrect. NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system in the same manner as banks and cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves.

4. Deposit insurance facility of DICGC is not available to the depositors of deposit-taking NBFCs:
Correct. DICGC deposit insurance covers eligible bank deposits and does not extend to deposits held with NBFCs.

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Q100 Answer given in source

Question 100: Solution & Explanation

Answer

Option (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) uses the Alkire-Foster methodology, developed by Sabina Alkire and James Foster at the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).

NITI Aayog's National MPI uses 12 indicators across three dimensions: Health, Education, and Standard of Living. These indicators incorporate India-specific modifications to the global framework.

The Global MPI, published by UNDP and OPHI, uses 10 indicators across the same three broad dimensions.

Bank Account is included in NITI Aayog's MPI but not in the UNDP Global MPI. Similarly, Maternal Health/ANC is part of NITI Aayog's framework, whereas the Global MPI uses Nutrition as an indicator.

Statement Analysis

1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology:
Correct. Both the Global MPI and NITI Aayog's National MPI use the Alkire-Foster method to identify and measure multidimensional poverty.

2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators:
Correct. NITI Aayog's National MPI uses 12 indicators across the three dimensions of Health, Education, and Standard of Living.

3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP):
Incorrect. Bank Account is included in NITI Aayog's MPI but not in the UNDP Global MPI. Similarly, Maternal Health/ANC is specific to NITI Aayog's framework and is not included as an indicator in the Global MPI.

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